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More thoughts on 2/1 sequences

#1 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2004-December-18, 09:55

I'm playing in the bracket II KO's yesterday with Brian and I pick up this stellar collection: AKT Jx AQJTx, KTx. Brian opens 1 and I respond 1; 2 by him. I don't have a good way to bid this, so: 2 by me, 2N by him, 3 by me, 3N by him and I stab at 6.

He had Qx, Axx, xx, AQxxxx, which is about what he rates to hold. K is off (yes I know he can still make it) and they led a heart from the KQ, so -1. Same result at other table. Decent slam - a bit unlucky I think that the hook was off and opening leader held the KQ.

As has been discussed at length around here, 2/1 sequences are pretty easy after a one level rebid by Opener. XYZ and the assorted extensions make setting up a low level force rather easy, and immediate slam tries can be made.

If Opener reverses or jump shifts, there are structures to sign off or create a low level force.

The gap in 2/1 seems to be when Opener makes a simple 2 level rebid, whether or not in his first suit. Responder frequently has to temporize with a fragment, or make a phony reverse. And frequently, depending on your agreements, even then is a a game force set up. Invites frequently requires the partnership to jump.

I'd like this thread to be a discussion about how to deal with these sequences. Let me kick off some ideas I've been mulling around. Feel free to interject some ideas you think are better, or some ideas that you are aware of that are already in play in other parts of the globe.

Lets start with: 1 - 1 - 2.

(Note; I am coming from a 12-14 NT structure. I also play reverse flannery. My suggestions are built around my framework).

2 - Artificial invite
2 - Artificial game force
2 - Natural, non-forcing; 6-9
2N - Relay to 3 to sign off in 's
3 - Natural and slammish
3 - Natural and slammish (at least 5-5)
3 - Natural and slammish (at least 5-5)
3 - Slammish; excellent suit (no worse than KQJT- 6th)
3N - Balanced 12-14
4 -Blocking
4 - Kickback
4 - EKCB, etc..

1. Opener's responses to 2:

2 - Ambiguous; minimum hand; denies 3.

------->2 - weak invite with 6 spades
------->2N -balanced 10-11, with good red suit stops
------->3 invitational; but lacks a stop in at least one of the red suits
------->3 invitational; probably 5-5
------->3 - same as 3
------->3 - strong invite
------->3N - game values; 5332.

2 - at least 3 spades and minimum

-------->essentially same rebids as 2

2N - good red suit stoppers; minimum

3 - Maximum 2 rebid
3 - Maximum; 6-4
3 - Maximum, 6-4
3 - Maximum and 3 .
3N - Maximum and good red suit stops.

2. Opener's responses to 2. A game force is now created, so Opener just bids up-the line with delayed support or new suits.

So; going back to the hand we had yesterday:



1 - 1
2 - 3
3 - 4
5 - 5
6 - Pass

3 is a cue bid; 4 starts a kickback sequence.

Doesn't this seem a little easier?

Comments please!
"Phil" on BBO
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#2 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2004-December-18, 10:29

On the hand which started the thread, if responder makes the obvious 2 response then he doesn't have to manufacture anything. 1 2 3 3 (cue) etc

As to your method, it is probably OK. But I am wondering about the sequence

1 1
2 2
3

Where opener has presumably shown 5 4 and not 3. What does responder do without 6 but no stop (eg a 5332 hand)?

Eric
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#3 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2004-December-18, 10:56

EricK, on Dec 18 2004, 08:29 AM, said:

On the hand which started the thread, if responder makes the obvious 2 response then he doesn't have to manufacture anything. 1 2 3 3 (cue) etc

As to your method, it is probably OK. But I am wondering about the sequence

1 1
2 2
3

Where opener has presumably shown 5 4 and not 3. What does responder do without 6 but no stop (eg a 5332 hand)?

Eric

1 - 2 is a limit raise in clubs the way we play. Yes I see a SJS right away solves ALL problems. Win some lose some.

As far as: 1 - 1 - 2 - 2 - 3.....

This is an awkward sequence. Perhaps Opener's rebids should be structured to avoid preempting the sequence. Of maybe the call of 3 should show the heart suit but PROMISE a stop. I don't know - this is why I'm opening up the discussion.
"Phil" on BBO
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#4 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2004-December-18, 12:06

I rarely play 2/1 however we have solved these problems by playing 2NT as forcing on these sequences.

1 1
2 2NT Artificial Force

1 1Maj
2 2NT Artificial Force

1 1
2 2NT Artificial Game Force

We also play this after a 2/1 since that is not game forcing for me.

After 1 1Maj we do something different.

1 1Maj
2 2 Artificial Force

This last one is the Bourke relay idea which you could use on all of the sequences but I like to bid my suits naturally whenever possible.

On the other hand giving up a natural invitational 2NT was not a big deal since 'invite seldom and accept often' is a good general strategy.

We often pass opener's rebid with misfitting otherwise invitational hands. Occasionally we miss a game but there is also an up-side when we play at a low level and can scramble 8 tricks when the field are in a hopeless 2NT or 3NT.

In response to the 2NT force our rebids concentrate on showing a good suit or support for partner. There is no need to show a second suit at this stage as responder would have preferred a natural and forcing rebid with another suit.

When opener could have rebid a five-card suit e.g.

1 1
2 2NT

3 guarantees six-diamonds

3 shows three spades but since we freely raise on the previous round with three-card support this also shows a good six-card minor

3NT denies six diamonds and denies two spades

3/ show side stoppers/high-card features and promise two spades

When opener has shown a six-card suit e.g.

1 1
2 2NT

3 shows a good six-card suit
3 shows three diamonds and good six clubs
3/ show doubleton diamond and a high-card feature
3NT denies a doubleton diamond
Wayne Burrows

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dunno how to play 4 card majors - JLOGIC
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Posted 2004-December-18, 14:13

Am I missing something?

it went:

1C 1D
2C 2S
2N 3H<---------huh?

why not just bid 3C
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#6 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2004-December-18, 17:11

Jlall, on Dec 18 2004, 08:13 PM, said:

Am I missing something?

it went:

1C 1D
2C 2S
2N 3H<---------huh?

why not just bid 3C

Was going to say the same :D.

Anyway it probably finnish on 6.
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#7 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2004-December-19, 11:43

Because with this partner this reverse is only a one round force! We play up the line (puke I know!) so 2 shows a concentration of values and he could pass 3.

Its funny; we had an almost identical auction yesterday in the Open:

Scoring: MP


1 - 1 - 2 - 2 - 2N - 3 - 3N - 4 - 4 - 4 - 5 - 6.

Only pair to reach it :rolleyes:

3rd out of 72; not bad I guess :)
"Phil" on BBO
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#8 User is offline   Flame 

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Posted 2004-December-19, 18:59

You can find nice solutions in Ambra, they come in two machnisms.
The first is called Gar and it can be excuted every time partner show two suiter (like in 1d-1S-2c)
The second is called 2ntT, it applies after 1 over 1 and rrebid of 1s/1nt or 2m.
There are also many relays like 1c-1d-2c-2h is a relay.
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