We play a version of 2/1 with inverted minors. In a practice bidding session, my partner opened 1D and I had A x QJXXXX AKJXX. I bid 4N and immediately got into an argument. I was hoping it was taken as KCB, but from what I could find it is BW. Most inverted minor raise auctions are looking for a NT game. Is 4N quantitative, BW or KCB? Is there a standard meaning to this bid?
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1D - 4N
#2
Posted 2010-October-26, 19:35
Obviously the most important part is to have agreement on what it is (regardless of what others play). But as far as I know, the default meaning for 1X-4NT is ace-asking. I don't remember ever having a hand for that bid, but it makes sense to me -- if you want to RKC, you can set the trump first, using whatever forcing raise is available to you.
#3
Posted 2010-October-26, 20:15
Use 1m - 4m! = RKC
And 1m - 4NT as "Specific Ace Ask " ( Google it )
And 1m - 4NT as "Specific Ace Ask " ( Google it )
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall
" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh
K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall
" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh
K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
#4
Posted 2010-October-26, 23:18
Some might well choose 1♦-4N as quantitative. For instance, imagine you have a hand like:
AQx AQT KJx JTxx
Over 1♦ you don't have great responses. You can bid 2♣ but that doesn't really suit your hand with such a bad 4 card suit and a flat hand. You can try an inverted raise but that is a bit of a stretch as you don't really want to suggest a diamond fit opposite 4 or even many 5 card suits. With the same hand and no major Q you might well respond 3nt which many play as a flat 13-15. With this 17 count though you might well be interested in slam in NT or diamonds depending on if partner has extra values and if partner is flatish or shapely.
AQx AQT KJx JTxx
Over 1♦ you don't have great responses. You can bid 2♣ but that doesn't really suit your hand with such a bad 4 card suit and a flat hand. You can try an inverted raise but that is a bit of a stretch as you don't really want to suggest a diamond fit opposite 4 or even many 5 card suits. With the same hand and no major Q you might well respond 3nt which many play as a flat 13-15. With this 17 count though you might well be interested in slam in NT or diamonds depending on if partner has extra values and if partner is flatish or shapely.
#5
Posted 2010-October-27, 00:07
Yes, I think 1♦-4NT being quantitative is a useful treatment, if 1♦-2NT is not forcing in your system.
#6
Posted 2010-October-27, 01:11
1x 4NT = Bwood
1x set the suit then 4nt = KC
Those are the rules we used.
1x set the suit then 4nt = KC
Those are the rules we used.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
#7
Posted 2010-October-27, 05:44
RKCB.
Is there a standard meaning: no.
What would I take the bid for: RKCB.
Either my p is not advanced enough, or my p thinks I am not advanced enough, fairly
safe bet that it was meant to be RKCB without prior discussion.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Is there a standard meaning: no.
What would I take the bid for: RKCB.
Either my p is not advanced enough, or my p thinks I am not advanced enough, fairly
safe bet that it was meant to be RKCB without prior discussion.
With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#8
Posted 2010-October-28, 01:53
1X-4NT is never RKC for me. With a fit you have time to just support and continue with 4NT afterwards. Without a fit and quantitative you can bid a suit first and see what happens. All that's left is regular Blacky, asking for Aces (maybe specific).
"It may be rude to leave to go to the bathroom, but it's downright stupid to sit there and piss yourself" - blackshoe
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