Codo, on Mar 9 2010, 03:13 AM, said:
I had bid 4 NT with the south hand after the double. Then the pass is forcing.
4N as two places to play...but why would that create a forcing situation as opposed to a 5C bid?
I think South takes 100% of the blame. He could have bid 5C with long clubs and short spades and no values. Or he could have something like xx x Jxxxx xxxxx that likely is down 1 in 5C but can't set 4S. South is in the only position to judge the trump fit of both sides.
North bid his hand well, first establishing his anchor suit and then showing values. Why should he bid the same hand again with no certainty of three defensive tricks?