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1C-(2H=majors)

#1 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2010-January-30, 16:04

1-(2)-??
2=4c and 5+; about 8-14 pts
What is?:
2
3
3
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#2 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-January-30, 18:47

It is what you agree it to be with your partner. We have an agreement that we play unusual vs these suit showing bids, if they are 5+
So 2S = natural, 3H = long Cs and 4Ds good hand, 3S = long Ds and 4Cs good hand.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#3 User is offline   ONEferBRID 

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Posted 2010-January-30, 18:53

kgr, on Jan 30 2010, 05:04 PM, said:

1-(2)-??
2=4c and 5+; about 8-14 pts
What is?:
2
3
3

I'd treat it the same as Un-Un in the analogous auction:
1H - ( 2NT! = minors ) - ??

where ??:
3C! = limit raise or better for Hts ( lower cue for lower of "our" suits)
3D! = GF, emphasis on Spades ( higher cue for higher of "our" suits )
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Thus, in the given auction:
1C - ( 2H! = Majors ) - ??
2S! = GF, cue for Diams
3H! = limit raise or better for Cl
And I would think:
3S!-jump = splinter in support of Cl
Don Stenmark ( TWOferBRIDGE )
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#4 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-January-31, 03:42

Spades are a playable strain, so I'd treat it the same as a natural 2 overcall.

If 2 promised 5-5, either 2 or 2NT ought to be a club raise. I usually have this agreement: against all defined 5-5 two-suiters, the highest cue-bid below our suit is a raise, and the other cue bid shows the remaining suit. That single sentence covers any bid showing any combination of suits, and you always end up playing the cue bids the right way around.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#5 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-January-31, 04:22

well that depends. is 2NT a cuebid? you need another sentence to clarify that (just adding the clarification in parentheses or as a footnote does not count).
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#6 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-January-31, 04:35

gwnn, on Jan 31 2010, 11:22 AM, said:

well that depends. is 2NT a cuebid? you need another sentence to clarify that (just adding the clarification in parentheses or as a footnote does not count).

Sorry, there were two distinct thoughts. I didn't bother to separate them into paragraphs because the Return key was too far away.

(1) If 2 showed 5-5, either 2NT or 3 should be a club raise.

(2) My preferred agreement is that against all defined 5-5 two-suiters, of the two cue-bids in their suits the higher one below our suit is a raise. In this sequence, the cue-bids would be 2 and 3. 3 is above our suit, so 2 would be a club raise and 3 would be a game-force with diamonds.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#7 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2010-January-31, 05:11

- Against 2-suited cue like 1-(2) or 2-suited NT like 1-(2NT) we play that DBL is penalty oriented. It is probably better to play that if opps bid one of the 2 suits then DBL is takeout?
- I had:
Scoring: IMP

What do you bid after:
1-(2=5+ and 4c)
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#8 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2010-January-31, 08:52

I use transfers here.
X->S or strong DT's for penalties -expect to set 1-level up. Here that's what I start.
If partner declines penalties "Kaplan Q" 3H next.
2S->C, 3C->D, 3D->H(likely "Kaplan Q" here =1444 good controls).
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