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This may be the wrong forum

#21 User is offline   JLOL 

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Posted 2009-April-28, 16:06

mikeh, on Apr 28 2009, 04:56 PM, said:

I confess, I had assumed that your title meant that you at least considered placing this question in the B/I forum precisely because the standard treatment is to respond to partner's 1minor bid, after a double, almost as if the double had not happend... and wouldn't we all bid 1 then?

Why is this a standard treatment? Surely there are some hands where you would bid over 1 of a minor to keep the auction open because you might have a game or a better fit, but you would pass after the double (because if you have a game partner will still bid). I daresay that "everyone" would respond if the CA was the CQ after a pass, but "everyone" would pass after the double.

I also think it is fairly common to bypass weak 4 card majors and bid 1N on certain hand types because even if you find a 4-4 fit it is likely trumps are breaking badly, and they're all on your right (not good when you have no honors).

It seems obvious to me that it is a different situation after a double and we shouldn't bury our heads in the sand and pretend there wasn't one.
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#22 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2009-April-28, 16:19

mikeh, on Apr 28 2009, 04:56 PM, said:

I confess, I had assumed that your title meant that you at least considered placing this question in the B/I forum precisely because the standard treatment is to respond to partner's 1minor bid, after a double, almost as if the double had not happend... and wouldn't we all bid 1 then?

I wasn't sure if this hand was interesting enough for the interesting bridge hands forum.

My partner had this hand yesterday and bid 1H (actually, redoubled to show hearts). I would have passed but I wasn't sure if that was better. I still don't know but I appreciate everybody's input.
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#23 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-April-28, 16:24

I think I would bid 1, but I don't hate pass.
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#24 User is offline   655321 

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Posted 2009-April-28, 16:26

1 for me.

And with the redouble to show hearts treatment, I think bidding (redoubling) is even more attractive because you overcome any wrongsiding issues.
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#25 User is online   mikeh 

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Posted 2009-April-28, 17:24

JLOL, on Apr 28 2009, 05:06 PM, said:

mikeh, on Apr 28 2009, 04:56 PM, said:

I confess, I had assumed that your title meant that you at least considered placing this question in the B/I forum precisely because the standard treatment is to respond to partner's 1minor bid, after a double, almost as if the double had not happend... and wouldn't we all bid 1 then?

Why is this a standard treatment? Surely there are some hands where you would bid over 1 of a minor to keep the auction open because you might have a game or a better fit, but you would pass after the double (because if you have a game partner will still bid). I daresay that "everyone" would respond if the CA was the CQ after a pass, but "everyone" would pass after the double.

I also think it is fairly common to bypass weak 4 card majors and bid 1N on certain hand types because even if you find a 4-4 fit it is likely trumps are breaking badly, and they're all on your right (not good when you have no honors).

It seems obvious to me that it is a different situation after a double and we shouldn't bury our heads in the sand and pretend there wasn't one.

I agree with all of your comments, other than to ask 'why is something standard?' is more a rhetorical device than a real question. The fact is that, as best as i can recall from having played and read bridge for 35 years, it is 'standard' to bid one over one as if the double had not taken place.

it is also true that a lot of 'standard' bidders will exercise discretion when applying this treament. If I held Kxx xxxx xxx AQx, I would almost certainly bid 1N rather than 1, for the very reasons that you outlined. But bidding 1N on this hand seems silly... it is positionally wrong and the best way to get to notrump on this hand, from partner's hand, is to bid 1.

Pass won't do it unless you get very lucky in the auction.

That isn't THE reason to bid 1, but is surely is A reason to bid 1 on this hand.
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#26 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2009-April-28, 17:34

Given transfers were in play, it's interesting whether the hand should bid 1 (if that showed a balanced hand) rather than XX (showing hearts) or pass.
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#27 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-April-28, 17:36

Echognome, on Apr 28 2009, 06:34 PM, said:

Given transfers were in play, it's interesting whether the hand should bid 1 (if that showed a balanced hand) rather than XX (showing hearts) or pass.

I think its clear to xx. We can follow up with 1N if necessary.
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#28 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-April-28, 17:37

I thought passing would be obvious. Who knew.
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#29 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2009-April-29, 00:47

There had been and will be times where Justin errs. But this is not one of them...

Of course you bid different after a double. I would not care when my partner bids 1 Heart, but I would simply pass.
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#30 User is offline   JLOL 

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Posted 2009-April-29, 00:48

Codo, on Apr 29 2009, 01:47 AM, said:

There had been and will be times where Justin errs.

LOL
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#31 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2009-April-29, 01:17

mikeh, on Apr 29 2009, 02:43 AM, said:

1

Frankly don't understand the point of this. 1N is silly, positionally and on point count. Pass is not much better.. why can't this hand belong to us, in notrump, diamonds, clubs or even, yes, hearts?

Agree with Mike. Can't see the logic in a pass.
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#32 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-April-29, 02:28

It's a 1 wtp to me... :)
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#33 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2009-April-29, 10:34

I'm a 1 bidder here.
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#34 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-April-29, 10:37

Codo, on Apr 29 2009, 01:47 AM, said:

But this is not one of them...

LOL
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