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Forcing or not?

Poll: Is 2[HE] forcing?? (26 member(s) have cast votes)

Is 2[HE] forcing??

  1. Yes, 1 round forcing (9 votes [34.62%])

    Percentage of vote: 34.62%

  2. Yes, game forcing (6 votes [23.08%])

    Percentage of vote: 23.08%

  3. No (8 votes [30.77%])

    Percentage of vote: 30.77%

  4. No, but it's semi-forcing, promissing a good hand (invitational) (3 votes [11.54%])

    Percentage of vote: 11.54%

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#1 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2004-April-19, 17:46

The bidding goes:

1 - 1 - Dbl* - pass
1NT - pass - 2 - pass
???

The double promisses 4+ or 9+HCP 'any' hand.

Is this bid forcing, and how many s does it promisse??

[EDIT] Remark: 1 - (1) - 2 would be NOT forcing
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#2 User is offline   Flame 

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Posted 2004-April-19, 17:54

the bid show 5+.
About the stengh i think its better player as limit 9-11(12) or something like that which isnt forcing, but i dont usually play negative free bids.
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#3 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2004-April-19, 17:56

Easy. If you have 's and want to force, just bid 2 instead of double. Simple, bridge 101.

Ben
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Posted 2004-April-19, 17:59

inquiry, on Apr 19 2004, 06:56 PM, said:

Easy. If you have 's and want to force, just bid 2 instead of double. Simple, bridge 101.

Ben

He mean when playing negative free bids, then 2h is 0-8 and not forcing.
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#5 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2004-April-19, 18:00

Well if you play -ve free bids, then this 2H is forcing; if you don't play
-ve free bids, then you could have originally forced with 2H so this bid is now non forcing.

Ron
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Posted 2004-April-19, 18:28

Forcing, seems a very very basic Neg Freebid situation. If you haven't discussed this when playing it, ayayay ;)

Mike :D
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#7 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2004-April-19, 19:31

i voted game forcing, but i play neg free bids... the x was either a normal neg x OR a game force somewhere... with 5 hearts and 5-11 or so, bid 2... with the same count and 4 hearts, neg x then pass 1nt
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Posted 2004-April-20, 03:05

Naturally, if you did not discuss anything :) , this shows 8-10 and 5+
Alain
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#9 User is offline   Gerben47 

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Posted 2004-April-20, 03:21

It says that a direct 2 would be non-forcing, that means a later 2 is forcing. Simple as that. Else you would've made a negative free bid. Don't tell me that shows 0-8, cuz it doesn't.
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Posted 2004-April-20, 03:39

Gerben47, on Apr 20 2004, 04:21 AM, said:

It says that a direct 2 would be non-forcing, that means a later 2 is forcing. Simple as that. Else you would've made a negative free bid. Don't tell me that shows 0-8, cuz it doesn't.

ofcouse it does, in Free's question.
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#11 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2004-April-20, 04:29

If 2 would be not forcing (7-11) then this is the next range: 12+, so it is game forcing.

Probably some people dont play it 7-11, so again the question goes to what would 2 on first round mean :).
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Posted 2004-April-20, 06:54

Fluffy, on Apr 20 2004, 05:29 AM, said:

If 2 would be not forcing (7-11) then this is the next range: 12+, so it is game forcing.

Probably some people dont play it 7-11, so again the question goes to what would 2 on first round mean :).

This question is answered in Free's first message.
It shows 8 or less hcp.
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#13 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2004-April-20, 07:11

If you are playing Negative Free Bids, which you appear to be doing, then a negative double followed by a new suit has to be forcing.

I've seen different treatments regarding whether a double followed by a new suit is game forcing or not.
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Posted 2004-April-20, 08:56

Ok... I didn't realize you are playing negative free bids. When I play negative free bids, this 2 bid would be 100% forcing... but note, my "doubles" with negative free bids is stronger than your 9+ any hand. I guess playing your way, since responder might have only 9 HCP, for your it should be no forcing again.
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Posted 2004-April-22, 00:36

5+, RF. This is std way for most of bg players.

Despite my above opinion there is something unclear in situation and need some general agreement with p, because cue bid is available as GF. When you already have one bid for GF, is it means you can use other as NF. In example you can play: 2: less than inv NF; dbl, later 2: inv, NF; dbl, later 2(cue), next 3: GF.

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Posted 2004-April-24, 15:21

Gerben47, on Apr 20 2004, 04:21 AM, said:

It says that a direct 2 would be non-forcing, that means a later 2 is forcing. Simple as that. Else you would've made a negative free bid. Don't tell me that shows 0-8, cuz it doesn't.

A direct 2 shows 4/5- 8 HCP, normally.
You want to get lower that's fine but upper limit is mostly 8/9 HCP.
But the question is still, this is as basic as it can get when you play Neg.Freebids, and you really have not talked about it ? That's very scary......

Mike :angry:
If there is dissatisfaction with the status quo, good. If there is ferment,
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be ideas, and hard thought, and hard work.
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