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Another 2/1 question Forcing NT related

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2008-November-20, 16:39

Playing 2/1 what would the meaning of the following action be:

1 1NT
2NT ???
3NT ???

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2008-November-20, 18:19

1 - 1NT (forcing)
2NT (natural invite, typically 17-18 or something like this)

If 1NT bidder now names a suit, without agreement I would assume this is natural and forcing to game. Even "bad" hands with 5-6 hcp and a six-card suit probably want to be in 3NT on this sequence, so it is more useful to be able to make a slam try rather than offer to play in 3-suit. Note that this is forcing to game now that opener showed 17-18; it presumably was not forcing to game initially.

It is popular to play transfers here though, so 3= and so forth; this does help with the rare "I want to get out" hand while still letting you have slam tries.

I would assume that:

1 - 1NT(F)
2NT - 3m (forcing natural)
3NT would be intending to play there, not a good hand for slam in the minor.

Pulling this to 4m would be quite rare (I guess a real distributional freak).

1 - 1NT(F)
2NT - 3 (natural)
3NT would again suggest a contract, pulling to 4 just says "I'd rather play in the suit"

If opener likes slam in the suit responder named he can cuebid of course.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#3 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2008-November-20, 21:22

For me, 1H-1NT-2NT by opener shows the "jump to 2NT" hand = balanced/semibalanced 18-19. All bids by responder are forcing; if he does not want to go to game, he will pass 2NT.
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