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Stayman sequence

Poll: What would you bid now? (33 member(s) have cast votes)

What would you bid now?

  1. 2SP - I strongly feel this is the right bid (15 votes [45.45%])

    Percentage of vote: 45.45%

  2. 2NT - I strongly feel this is the right bid (13 votes [39.39%])

    Percentage of vote: 39.39%

  3. I'm OK with either 2SP or 2NT (5 votes [15.15%])

    Percentage of vote: 15.15%

Vote Guests cannot vote

#1 User is offline   fachiru 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 10:32

Scoring: IMP


Your expert partner opens 1nt [15-17] as dealer at IMPs/red and I'll force a 2 stayman bid on your hand. Partner responds 2 , which does not deny spades.
What is your next bid if you had to pick from the 3 options given and why?
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#2 User is offline   rbforster 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 10:38

Being consistent is over-rated I know, but I bid 2 because I was interested in playing in spades if there was a fit. Following through with that is 2 here (unless you don't play 1N-2N as natural and I had to invite via 2).
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#3 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 10:38

I am going to assume that we are playing 4-suit transfers; therefore, 2 Stayman must be bid on all balanced invitational hands, with or without a 4 card major.

I would bid 2NT, but I don't feel strongly about it. 2 by me shows 4 spades and an invitational hand. I am treating this hand as a balanced invitational hand without a four card major.

If 2 Stayman promised a 4-card major, this issue is not relevant, and the poll questions are not relevant. In that case, 2 would show a 5-card suit, so that is clearly not correct.
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#4 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 10:40

With one partner I play that 1N-2-2-2M is a weaker invite to 3N than 2N over 2. Playing that way, 2 here is right.
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#5 User is offline   SoTired 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 10:56

If partner has both majors, I want to be in spades, because partner has a doubleton minor.

what to bid depends on agreed conventions. Some partnerships that use 2N for a diam transfer, use the sequence 1N-2C-2H-2S to show a 4 with 8-9 HCP and 1N-2C-2H-2N to show 8-9 HCP with no 4-card major.
If I am playing that convention, then I bid 2S.

Otherwise, I bid 2N, which should show 4 and 8-9 HCP.
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#6 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 11:13

I am confused. I thought it was "standard" that 2NT shows four spades while 2 is an idle bid to be defined by partnership (with one p I play it as invitational with five+ spades, with another p as weak with 4 spades and longer minor, with a 3rd p we play 4-way transfers so 2 now shows a natural 2NT response to 1NT).

Is it normal in North America that 2 shows an invitational hand with four spades? In that case I suppose I have to bid that.
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#7 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 11:22

This comes down to agreements. I use 4-way transfers and have to Stayman first on balanced invites. But over 2 I use 2 as a GF relay, asking for distribution. So I'd have to rebid 2NT here.

If a direct 2NT would be a natural invite I'd assume 2NT over 2 would imply 4-card spades, and that 2 could be used for other purposes (GF relay?).

So 2 as a 4-card invite here only makes sense to me if a direct 2NT wasn't available. If so, I'd rebid 2.
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#8 User is offline   bid_em_up 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 14:23

I won't say that I am an expert partner, but our (fachiru's and mine) agreements are as follows (he did not give a full explanation, imo):

We play 4 way transfers.
We have no direct invitational raise to 2N available.
2H in response to a stayman inquiry, does not deny 4 spades, a 2S in response to 2C denies 4 hearts.
A bid of 2C does not promise a 4 card major as it is the only way to invite with a balanced inviational hand that does not have a four card major.

Under these conditions, it is my opinion that the hand making a stayman inquiry with four spades MUST bid 2S (after 1N-2C-2H) to show that it has spades, in order to cater to the 1N opener being 4-4-(3-2).

Fachiru doesn't agree.

So the question really is:

Under the conditions above, does the 2NT rebid deny a 4 card major?

He says it does not deny one, I say that it does. If you had 4 spades, you would have bid 2S.

Some people may choose to rebid 2N (denying four spades), and they are within their rights to do so, but then I think they also realize that they are varying from what their systemic bid should be. Thats a different story.

Otherwise, you end up in 2N/3N down 2-3, when a 4-4 fit spade fit was available.
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#9 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 14:28

2. Yes its obvious (for me anyway), unless I'm playing with someone that plays transfer extensions.

I suppose with Jxxx xxx AJT QTx I might have a problem.
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#10 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 14:30

If 2 shows a 4-card spades and is non-forcing then it becomes a judgment issue if this hand should bid 2 or 2NT. The latter denies four spades but maybe a 4333 wants to play in notrump.

It is not quite clear whether that is the purpose of the poll, or whether we are supposed to vote for our pet stayman variant, or for what we think is standard.
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#11 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 14:34

I see no reason for 2NT to deny spades. If pard cares, he can always checkback with 3 on the way to game.
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#12 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 14:40

1nt=2c
2h=2s allows you to play 2s when that is best in 4-4 fit. If you dont play this then you just agree to play 2nt and miss 4-4 spades.
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#13 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 15:10

2NT, the system bid?

I may have missed something, and maybe 2NT
denies a 4 card major, but undiscussed 2NT is
the system bid.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#14 User is offline   Lobowolf 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 15:28

TylerE, on Oct 6 2008, 03:34 PM, said:

I see no reason for 2NT to deny spades. If pard cares, he can always checkback with 3 on the way to game.

It's when opener's not interested in game that you'd rather find the spades at the 2-level.
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#15 User is offline   Lobowolf 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 15:29

helene_t, on Oct 6 2008, 12:13 PM, said:

I am confused. I thought it was "standard" that 2NT shows four spades while 2 is an idle bid to be defined by partnership (with one p I play it as invitational with five+ spades, with another p as weak with 4 spades and longer minor, with a 3rd p we play 4-way transfers so 2 now shows a natural 2NT response to 1NT).

Is it normal in North America that 2 shows an invitational hand with four spades? In that case I suppose I have to bid that.

It frees up 1NT - 2NT for bigger and better things.
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#16 User is offline   NickRW 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 17:00

bid_em_up, on Oct 6 2008, 08:23 PM, said:

Under these conditions, it is my opinion that the hand making a stayman inquiry with four spades MUST bid 2S (after 1N-2C-2H) to show that it has spades, in order to cater to the 1N opener being 4-4-(3-2).

Fachiru doesn't agree.

Given your agreements, I would interpret it your way. I don't see how we can find our spade fit otherwise - perhaps your partner can explain how to get round this.

Nick
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#17 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2008-October-06, 17:45

Playing 4 way transfer is pretty standard among expert. So after 2H responder may or may not have 4S so you need a way to make the distinction.

1st way. 2Nt show 4S and is invitationnal. 2S is range ask and denies 4S

Advantage

You have an extra slamming tool with 2S.
You are not wrongsiding the contract if 4-4 spades fit exist.

disadvantage

You allow a lead directing double of 2S.

2nd way.

2S is invitaionnal with 4S
2Nt is invitationnal without 4S

Advantage

You may stop in 2S in 4-4 or 4-3 fit.
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#18 User is offline   fachiru 

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Posted 2008-October-07, 13:20

ArtK78, on Oct 6 2008, 11:38 AM, said:

I am going to assume that we are playing 4-suit transfers; therefore, 2 Stayman must be bid on all balanced invitational hands, with or without a 4 card major.

I would bid 2NT, but I don't feel strongly about it.  2 by me shows 4 spades and an invitational hand.  I am treating this hand as a balanced invitational hand without a four card major.

If 2 Stayman promised a 4-card major, this issue is not relevant, and the poll questions are not relevant.  In that case, 2 would show a 5-card suit, so that is clearly not correct.

About your last paragraph, Art: I'm not sure I'm getting this. An invitational hand with 5 would transfer and follow up with 2NT; it would not go thru Stayman and rebid in .

Playing 4-suit tranfers should you also play that Stayman does not garantee a 4M?
I'm not sure I like that; I'd rather blast to game or pass 1NT then lose that.
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#19 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2008-October-07, 14:12

fachiru, on Oct 7 2008, 02:20 PM, said:

ArtK78, on Oct 6 2008, 11:38 AM, said:

I am going to assume that we are playing 4-suit transfers; therefore, 2 Stayman must be bid on all balanced invitational hands, with or without a 4 card major.

I would bid 2NT, but I don't feel strongly about it.  2 by me shows 4 spades and an invitational hand.  I am treating this hand as a balanced invitational hand without a four card major.

If 2 Stayman promised a 4-card major, this issue is not relevant, and the poll questions are not relevant.  In that case, 2 would show a 5-card suit, so that is clearly not correct.

About your last paragraph, Art: I'm not sure I'm getting this. An invitational hand with 5 would transfer and follow up with 2NT; it would not go thru Stayman and rebid in .

Playing 4-suit tranfers should you also play that Stayman does not garantee a 4M?
I'm not sure I like that; I'd rather blast to game or pass 1NT then lose that.

If you play 2NT as natural and invitational, then Stayman promises a 4-card major. Stayman followed by 2 over 2 shows an invitational 5-4. I really had not thought about what 2 shows over a 2 response to Stayman. That bid does not really exist if you play transfers and natural 2NT invites. Helene suggested some uses for the bid in her post.
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#20 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2008-October-07, 14:53

[all in the context of 1nt-2nt artificial, all invs have to go through 2c]

Having embarked on this dubious adventure, your main hope of gain vs. those that didn't stayman is finding partner with some 4432 hand where spades does better than NT. I don't see why you want to give up on 1/3 of these by bidding 2nt over 2h.

What is the expected gain in bidding 2nt and burying spade fits? Concealment on the opening lead when partner has no spade fit? Playing in NT with a 4-4 spade fit and hoping it makes the same tricks? I don't think that's very much compared to getting to spade fit, at this point.


Quote

I see no reason for 2NT to deny spades. If pard cares, he can always checkback with 3♠ on the way to game.

(1) Now when declarer bids 3nt the defense doesn't know whether or not he has 4S
(2) Spade fit can be safer/higher scoring than NT, plus you can play it at the 2 level if opener is min and doesn't want to go to game
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