mike777, on Sep 25 2008, 12:03 AM, said:
blackshoe, on Sep 25 2008, 12:02 AM, said:
Thanks all. Pretty much what I eventually concluded I should have done. At the table, I bid 2
♦. Partner rebid 2NT, and I jumped to 6NT. Partner eschewed the diamond finesse, even though taking it would not jeopardize the contract, so missed the overtrick. She had, iirc, S QJxx H Axx D xx C AKxx.
The post-mortem was interesting. We had not discussed it, so I felt that we should both be on the same wavelength - that jump shifts were strong, not weak. But partner said after the hand "Nobody plays strong jump shifts anymore. I almost passed."
Yeah, my bidding sucked.

lol just rebid 3c no problem yet........
you can always correct to 6nt....7nt later...
1c=2d
2nt=3c
4c=4d rkc now you take control....
no checkback
no 4sf
of course if no sjs 1d gets you there also. just more bids.
Depending of the version of SJS you are playing
3C showed a club fit, it is not artificial, i.e. you told
partner that you have 5-5 or at least 5-4, at least
if you happen to play Soloway JS.
Now you may survive painting a false picture, but
I would say, that you need to try harder to prove
that SJS works on this hand better than 1D combined
with FSF, one option may look like
1C - 2D
2NT (1) - 5NT (2)
7NT (3)
(1) most likely it says nothing about the strength,
i.e. opener could still have 15HCP, say with a 5-4
shape, denying 3 diamonds.
(2) quantitative invitation to 7NT.
(3) max, unfortunately 36HCP may mean, we may miss
an Ace, not likely, but possible.
And I repeat, I played SJS, and I liked to play it.
With kind regards
Marlowe
PS: To answer Rolands question - 2M instead of 2NT is not
a reverse, it does not even show 5-4 (not 100% sure about
this one, I guess with 4441 I would bid 2NT, so 54 it is.