Competitive slam auction from NA Swiss
#1
Posted 2007-August-01, 12:23
4♠ P 4NT p
5♠ P ?
Now what do people consider the meanings of these possible bids by responder?
5NT
6♣
6♦
I was opener here, holding AQJxxxx Axxx - Jx. What do people think is my correct bid over each of those bids by partner?
Full hand to follow.
#2
Posted 2007-August-01, 12:41
2. 6C in absence of the competive bidding should be "we have all of the keys, but I need a little help in clubs". I don't see why the opps bidding should change that.
3. 6D should be to play. He answered keys - we are placing the contract in our suit. We are in a stressed auction, so we need this optionto play 6D.
1A. 6S. Nothing to special mention and I can't count 13 tricks.
2A. 6S. Nothing special in clubs.
3A. Gag. Is 6D better than 6S? I'll try 6S even though it could be wrong.
#3
Posted 2007-August-01, 12:45
One reasonable set of meanings is:
5NT: we have all the keycards/I am trying for grand
6♣: pick-a-slam
6♦: I have x KQx AKQJ10xxx x
As such, I would pass 6♦ and probably bid 6♠ over the other two. If I was sure that pard meant 5NT as above then I can live with a 6♣ bid also.
I can also see someone claiming the above meanings, but with 5NT and 6♣ reversed.
#4
Posted 2007-August-01, 12:46
6♦ I'd take as natural, to play, but not quite sure.
6♣ would have no real meaning to me, but since 6♦ is confusing, I expect opener to cuebid ♦K, or even the Queen if he has it.
Neither bid asks about ♠J for me.
I don't think that american pick a slam is right in here, partner was prepared to play in 5♠, so 6♦ is not forcing us to pass, just offering us a probably better contract.
---------
On the given hand:
5NT -> 6♣ no extra trick at all
6♣ -> 6♠ nothing extra to show
6♦ -> 6♠ partner has some spade support, maybe bare king. Good enough.
#5
Posted 2007-August-01, 12:52
Apollo81, on Aug 1 2007, 06:45 PM, said:
Partner is placing himself on slam off 2 aces any time we have ♠K with that, I think partner has better spade tolerance for the bidding, also he probably has 1 more keycard.
I'd say K-KQxx-AKQ109xx-x
#7
Posted 2007-August-01, 12:54
Fluffy, on Aug 1 2007, 01:52 PM, said:
Apollo81, on Aug 1 2007, 06:45 PM, said:
Partner is placing himself on slam off 2 aces any time we have ♠K with that, I think partner has better spade tolerance for the bidding, also he probably has 1 more keycard.
I'd say K-KQxx-AKQ109xx-x
What, no negative double?
#8
Posted 2007-August-01, 13:00
TimG, on Aug 1 2007, 06:54 PM, said:
Is it mandatory for you?, I don't like to play 4-4 when I have a 7 card suit, you get tapped, and trumps 4-1 ruin your day. Still you have a point double is an option, just not everyone's option.
What about K Kxx KQJ9xxx Ax?
#9
Posted 2007-August-01, 13:26
5NT is unambigous - bid specific kings up the line. We have all of the key cards. This is a grand slam try, and responder can just bid the grand if he can count 13 tricks based on the fact that we have all of the key cards.
Without any competition, the 6C bid and the 6D bid are grand slam tries specifically asking for second round control in the bid suit (according to Kantar, the last time I checked). I suspect that the agreement is unchanged even in competition.
On this particular auction, I can understand why some would think that 6D might be to play. But that is not a good idea. One should not go in search of a new suit to play the hand at this level after a key card auction is started. Talk about inviting disaster.
#10
Posted 2007-August-01, 14:00
6C for me is g/s try needing help in clubs for spades (pick-a-slam is I think not applicable here; you didn't support diamonds and instead bid your own hand).
6D I think is choice of slam between 6S and 6NT, and 6H...probably some sort of g/s try showing good hearts with absolute club control.
Admittedly, I'm not a big fan of 4NT being RKC for spades here; much prefer a cuebidding sequence.
#11
Posted 2007-August-01, 14:03
6D should be to play, I think I'd pass.
5NT should be a grand slam try. I'd bid 6S.
I hope the suggestion of a negative double was a joke.
- hrothgar
#12
Posted 2007-August-01, 14:20
5nt=specific king ask
6c=shows k of clubs, asks for further cuebids
6d=k of D asks for further cuebids(2d was non forcing for me so partner cannot have a huge d hand and zero spades.) without that agreement I agree with everyone else and pass 6D.
#13
Posted 2007-August-01, 14:26
I have no extras. If partner wanted to play in 6D, he should find another way.
#14
Posted 2007-August-01, 17:33
The specific meaning of 5NT is to bid "Kings" up the line. However, a stiff club is a "King" in this auction.
6♣ asking for third-round control seems initially to make no sense. 6♣ asking for second-round control is redundant. So, let's wait a second on this.
6♦ suggests a need for the Queen to make the grand.
Back to 6♣. What's left as an option? Choice-of-slams might make sense, but my answer showing the spade Queen seems to resolve any possible uncertainties that might otherwise suggest a diamond slam. However, partner having club Kx might be a real problem for him. So, I get back to my original treatment -- he "needs" the club Queen OR a stiff, for lead-proection reasons in this case. If I have the stiff or a Queen, I can bid 6♠. If not, I protect his club King by bidding 6♦. Sort of a blended answer.
============================================
What to do after...?
5NT ==> I don't think I'll get enough diamond pitches for the heart suit, so 6♠ for me.
6♣ ==> Ugh! Jx in clubs, but a void in diamonds. I think I'll take my chances at guessing what to do on the opening lead rather than making partner play diamonds opposite a void.
6♦ ==> He wants the Queen. A void might help anyway, if he has AKJxxxx. But, I ain't that brave.
============================================
I cannot wait for the actual hand. I smell a possible small club lead against 6♠...
-P.J. Painter.
#15
Posted 2007-August-01, 17:38
I think it is clear not to cooperate with any slam try, my diamond void is really bad. I don't know whether it is right to pass 6D, but I would bid 6S on the theory that partner won't expect my void AND doesn't know I have ♠J.
#16
Posted 2007-August-01, 18:12
Generically I would play:-
5NT= asks for specific K up the line
6C= asks for specific Q up the line!!!
6D= to play on this auction
I would play it straight in response: 6S, 6S , P (and pray if you are that way inclined).
regards
#17 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-August-01, 18:46
6D should be to play, partner bid them naturally.
5N should show all the keycards and the trump queen.
#18
Posted 2007-August-02, 10:55
jdonn, on Aug 1 2007, 07:23 PM, said:
4♠ P 4NT p
5♠ P ?
Now what do people consider the meanings of these possible bids by responder?
5NT
6♣
6♦
I was opener here, holding AQJxxxx Axxx - Jx. What do people think is my correct bid over each of those bids by partner?
Full hand to follow.
I know what I have agreed these to mean with my regular partners:
5NT: Grand slam try, asks for kings
6C: systemically asks for the CK or CQ and shows grand slam ambition. Seems a bit odd in this auction, but maybe he is trying to count tricks for a grand
6D: asks about the KQ of diamonds
My general rule is that once you have used RKCB in one suit, you can't suddenly change your mind about what suit you want to play in at the 6-level (you can jump to 6 of a different suit, to play, but you can't bid 6D to play in this auction).
I agree that 4NT may not be RKCB in spades, but in my partnerships it is. If you want to play in diamonds, you have to bid them over 4S.
Without these specific agreements I would assume that
5NT = asks for kings
6C: looking for a diamond cue bid (probably the Queen)
6D: contract suggestion, offering 6D or 6S
On the actual hand I bid 6S. if 6D is a better contract, partner would have bid it over 4S.
#19
Posted 2007-August-02, 11:30
Another question is what is a 6H call in this sequence? I vote for last train for spades.
#20
Posted 2007-August-02, 12:02
pclayton, on Aug 1 2007, 01:41 PM, said:
♣♦♥♠
If that's the right interpretation, and I think it is, then the only explanation for partner's bid is, that partner holds ♣Ace-small. (Surely the opps must have 9 ♣ between them.)
Partner also holds the Ace of ♦, as he wouldn't be making a GS try unless we held all the keycards; and I am void in diamonds.
So, won't I just play both his minor suit Aces, sluffing off a ♣ from my hand on the Ace of ♦ and voiding my hand of ♣ entirely? Thus removing any chance of having a ♣ loser ....
So bidding the grand seems right on this theory. What do you think?

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