Splintering on a singleton king Is there an alternative?
#2
Posted 2005-June-06, 14:15
MickyB, on Jun 6 2005, 03:01 PM, said:
1♣-(P)-1♥-(1♠). What now?
2S
I really like my hand. Second choice is 4H (18-20) deny splinter but I think I am too strong for this with those 6 clubs.
Of course if p can respond 1H on:
XXXX
XXXXX
XXXX
VOID
LET'S NOT GO CRAZY
#3
Posted 2005-June-06, 14:24
Just a thought.
WinstonM
#4
Posted 2005-June-06, 14:25
#5
Posted 2005-June-06, 14:27
#6
Posted 2005-June-06, 14:31
1m 1M 4m = Good 6 (2 of top 3)-4, game force. This is exactly what I have. Partner can bid slam with as little as xxx KJxx xxx Qxx
#7
Posted 2005-June-06, 14:35
2♠-(P)-3♥-(P)
3♠
If partner persist with 4♥, I give. If he cue-bids 4 of a minor, I use RKCB.
In the real world, with my partners, I play 2NT by me over 1♠ as strong four card support and start an artificial auction with 3♣ by partner being his weakest response.. .but this is FAR FAR FAR from standard.
Ben
#8 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2005-June-06, 15:12
#10 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2005-June-06, 15:39
#11
Posted 2005-June-06, 16:11
Jlall, on Jun 6 2005, 04:39 PM, said:
I am one of "some". 3♦ is a singleton, at least invitational, 4♦ is a void.
Roland
#12
Posted 2005-June-06, 16:13
Quote
Agree totally, and it would take an agreement for An/OR, either weak and concentrated or strong and GF with slam interest. The only thing it couldn't be is a "tweener". In fact, just about any bid that shows two suits with agreement may use this an/or approach, provided that partner cannot pass the bid. Michael's comes immediately to mind, as with agreement you could play this as either QJ10xx, KJ10xx, x, xx or AQJxx, AKJxxx, x, x, but it shouldn't then be AJ10xx, KQxxx, x, Kx. An/Or approach allows the same bid to show 2 different values and expands the vocabulary, but only IMO.
WinstonM
#13
Posted 2005-June-06, 17:52
#14
Posted 2005-June-07, 03:46
Still, with the hand above I don't need any of that. Just bid 4NT and all should be fine. No need to complicate matters with cuebids.
#15
Posted 2005-June-07, 04:04
whereagles, on Jun 7 2005, 04:46 AM, said:
And punish partner by letting him play a doomed contract at the 5-level on the natural spade lead? Great approach.
Jxx
10xxx
QJx
Qxx
Maybe he should have passed 1♣ because he risks that you drive him to the 5-level moments later? That can hardly be winning bridge.
Roland
#16
Posted 2005-June-07, 05:38
#17
Posted 2005-June-07, 05:54
Say the auction starts
1♣-(P)-1♥-(1♠)
2♠
How should it continue? Is the 2♠ bid GF?
Sorry, I could probably have fitted more of my questions into the original post, but I wanted to give Justin an excuse to post several times to the thread under each of his aliases.
#18
Posted 2005-June-07, 06:02
whereagles, on Jun 7 2005, 06:38 AM, said:
When are you going to realise that it's possible to investigate slam without bypassing a safe level? Punting seems to be your kind of game. It's ok of course, but it is not sound bridge in my opinion.
Roland
#20
Posted 2005-June-07, 07:14
MickyB, on Jun 7 2005, 11:54 AM, said:
You might had waited just a bit more, these alias was suposed to be sleeping while you posted these
It seems obvious that splinter works like a charm on the posted hand, but let's say you do not use it, after 2♠ soth won't accept the game invite and bid 3♥, then nortth will bid 3♠.
At these point South has to not fall asleep, North has not splintered, and is tryins slam, these means his ♠K is a golden card rather than a wasted value, he has to bid something encouraging such as 3NT or 4♣.

Help

1♣-(P)-1♥-(1♠). What now?