[ArcLight]

With a semi-balanced 18 HCP hand, with 4 spades, I opened 1 Club. Pard responded 1 diamond. I responded 1 Spade, but I think that was a mistake.

What should I have responded?

2S to show a reverse?

2NT to show 18-19?

Pard responded 1NT and easily made 3NT (from the wrong side).

[ochinko]

We bid Walsh style (major first by responder), so 1D excludes a 4-card major. 2NT from the opener is clear cut now. 2Sp would show 18-19 HCP with 5 diamonds and 4 spades.

Petko

[hrothgar]

2♠ is appropriate if you have 5+ clubs and 4(+) spades.

With a balanced 4432, you should respond 2NT to clarify range and show a balanced hand. If partner advanced 1♦ holding a 4 card major, then he will have enough strength to make a constructive rebid over 2NT.

Holding 4=2=2=5, you have some option regarding whether to rebid 2NT or 2♠

[joker_gib]

I personnaly rebid 2NT to show 18-19 balanced and we use some kind of 3♣ kickback to describe (if needed) the hand later.

Alain

[Fluffy]

IF your semi bal is 4414 then 1♥ is the proper bid.

If it is 4315 then it is 2♠

If it is 4225 then 2♠ is the standard response, but 2NT is better sometimes.

[Fluffy]

Now I think of it, since my 2NT rebids are GF, I rebid 2NT with 4324 after 1♣-1♠ and end up in 4♠ later.

I've seen most people on these forum don't play 2NT rebid as Forcing, how do you handle 4 card supports with 19 balanced then?.

[joker_gib]

Fluffy, on Jun 6 2005, 09:13 AM, said:

I've seen most people on these forum don't play 2NT rebid as Forcing, how do you handle 4 card supports with 19 balanced then?.

I think that in France, most people rebid 3NT.

Btw,I play like you !

Alain

[whereagles]

Whether or not to bypass spades is a matter of schoo: some schools recommend bypassing, others not. (I prefer bypassing.)

I also avoid the dreaded 1m-1M-4M if I have a 4M333 with 18-19. In that case I rebid 2NT. If pard now bids 3NT, I'll give it a shot and pass. Opposite any other bid I bid 4M.

[Fluffy]

The 4♠ rebid is how I learnt to bid when I was a beginner, but later I found it crashed with the 4♠+6♣ when ♣ weren't solid, do you splinter with that?

[whereagles]

Depends on the hand. Give me an example.

[ArcLight]

Thanks for your replies.

>Pet peeve time... a 2S bid would be a jumpshift not a reverse. As you are jumping levels and shifting suits, it is a jumpshift. If there were no jumping (e.g. 1C-1S-2H) that would be a reverse. A JS is GFing and a reverse is not. /end pet peeve.

I guess my Spades weren't good enough to jump shift, I think they were AQxx. I assume I need 5 spades, like AQJ93 for a jump shift?

--------------------------------

Another question, I was playing Duplicate at a club with a pick up pard.
(Prior to the game I asked pickup Pard if he was familiar with cue bidding, and he said no, so that wasnt an option)

I was dealer with:

♠ Q 9 x x
♥ A K Q J T x x x (8 hearts)
♦ x
♣ void

I opened 1♥, LHO overcalled 2♦, pard bid 2NT (showing 11-12 and a ♦ stopper). I rebid 3♠, to see pards response. He raised to 4♠, and I then bid 6♥. I thought the slam would be ok if:
a) pard had a good spade suit (4 cards, headed by AK) OR
b ) pard had the ♦ Ace, and a Spade suit like KJxx OR
c) pard had ♣ Ace, and ♦ K, and perhaps LHO would not lead his unsupported ♦ Ace, and instead lead the ♣ K from K Q, giving me a discard.

I was thinking that it wouldnt take that much for pard to have what I needed, not like the Ace of ♦ and the Ace of ♠. So it was a bit of a stretch, but I didnt think reckless.

Pard had his bid, (♠A T x x, ♥ 9 8 , ♦ Q x x x, ♣A J x) but LHO lead ♦ and pards ♠ weren't good enough to prevent a spade loser.


Please comment on my bidding and reasoning? Was my 6♥ slam bid foolish, or was it reasonable?

What would be a better way to bid this hand?

[Winstonm]

Two quick points: on the first hand, a jump shift by opener does not show 5 spades as you say, but a hand that is so strong that it insists on playing game and it (usually) denies 4-card support for your suit. AKxx, Kx, xx, AKQxx or something like this: the only thing else this "jump shift" guarantees (in standard USA bidding) is that the first suit bid is longer than the second - so you could have 5 spades, but then you would have at least 6 clubs.

On the second hand, your thinking is not too far off - big question to me is why your partner didn't make a negative double after 2D? - although this does not help so much other than you are less likely to hope for the diamond A. As I've said before, my rule of thumb is that if there is a dead minimum hand that partner could hold for his bidding to make sense, then my hand is worth a "move or try" for slam - not a slam - a try for slam. Pard could hold KJx, xx, KJxx, QJxx and this would make 6 hearts cold, so by my definition a slam try is in order. However, how to make a try is the question. Perhaps the best move now would be 3D, game forcing the way I play. And if you think deeply about it, it pretty much has to show either a 1-suited hand or a Heart/spade-club 2-suiter. Responder's duty now is to try to clarify his hand: with Kxx, xx, KQ109, KJx he should rebid 3N, as most of his hand is diamonds and his controls are poor. But with Kxx, xx, AJ10x, K10xx I am in favor of a 4 diamond call and with AKx, xx, QJxx, Jxx I like a 3S bid. Note that this is not suggesting spades as a contract as there was no negative double - this is just the most descriptive bid available, and partner's 3D said, "Tell me more about your hand."

Well, not so short after all, LoL.

WinstonM

[luke warm]

i agree with richard's post above... i'd bid 2nt with any balanced hand including 4 spades.. if i bid 2s here i'm guaranteeing 5+ clubs

btw, this is a small point but i think ochinko's post is a little misleading.. responder doesn't bid majors first playing walsh unless the hand is worth only one bid.. a 'responsive reverse' can have as few as 11 hcp for something like
1c : 1d
1nt : 2h

tho playing 2 way or xyz there's probably no necessity