[Poky]

Winstonm, on May 2 2005, 06:26 PM, said:

Scoring: IMP

1D-1S-?

What call do you make and what is the reason?  Is this hand too good to pass?  On a scale of 1-10, rate, please, the following actions:
1. Pass
2. Double
3. 1NT
4. 2S
5. 2D
6. Other?

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9 - 2♦
7 - Pass
5 - 2♣
3 - 2♠, Dbl
0 - 1NT, 2NT

[Gerben42]

Yes, so 1NT can be a worse hand than a direct 1NT, but 2NT can not be a BETTER hand.

I guess this hand can bid Pass and 2NT.

[beatrix45]

Why is bidding NT without a spade stop better than temporizing with 2♣ or doubling without a fourth heart? Would it matter if my spade holding were J62, what about 1096 or 632?

[Winstonm]

This has certainly been an interesting discussion and I admit that it has altered my views, which is the beauty of these kinds of posts - you get input from some really outstanding players whom in real life you would probably never meet.

I think Roland said it most succintly: "Why make bridge harder than it is?"

My personal list now looks like this:

2C - 10
Dbl- 7
2D-5
Pass- 3
2S-2
1N-1
2N-0.5

Question for those who pass and bid 1/2 nt: to reopen with a double, partner has shortness in spades, presumably 1 or 2; even if partner has honor doubleton, does one want to suggest a NT contract with the highly suspected 5/6 card suit being led? If I elected to pass, I would think a better call would then be 2S, announcing a maximum pass with no clear-cut action to take.

I also would not chatise a 2D call, as this action is an intelligent underbid on this shapeless hand and if it does catch partner with 5/6 diamonds puts us in a much better position to compete. And I am in full agreement that some action must be taken on this hand else we risk being pre-empted out of our socks with a 3S bid on our left.

Thanks to all who commented.

WinstonM

[Winstonm]

Scoring: IMP

I find problems like this occurring too often with a pass.
1D-1S-P-3S
It would seem N/S would be best placed to make the right decision had South began with 2C.

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[mike777]

Winstonm, on May 5 2005, 01:02 PM, said:

Dealer: North Vul: None Scoring: IMP

♠ 3 ♥ K104 ♦ AQJ32 ♣ KJ42 ♠ K762 ♥ 532 ♦ 109764 ♣ A ♠ AQ954 ♥ Q876 ♦   ♣ 10765 ♠ J108 ♥ AJ9 ♦ K85 ♣ Q983

I find problems like this occurring too often with a pass. 1D-1S-P-3S It would seem N/S would be best placed to make the right decision had South began with 2C.

Not sure what you mean by your comments here. The bidding by opp is novice level? 3S is weak except in novice world. Where is cuebid by LHO and these opp. should be in 4s.

[Winstonm]

Well, I put the example together in a hurry without much thought ...and 4S is too much to handle after the spade lead. Only point I had to make was that passing risks a double partscore swing.

[Winstonm]

It is interesting to note, Justin, that 1N is where I started. Originally I felt this bid had some real merit to it. It was about right on the "feel" of what the hand was worth. In fact, that's where the whole post came from. I ran this by some very fine players and got solid "no ways" from them, but I still felt that 1N was not all that bad of call.

Although flawed not so much by holding only 4 cards but by my poor shape, 2C still pretty well describes the hand. This sequence I believe in competition is forcing only to 2N or 3 of a minor. The other thing I like about 2C is that it gives partner rebid room without overstating the spade stop. Over 2C, he can bid 2D with 97, KQx, AQ10xx, Kxx whereas he might decide to bid 2N over 1N. Also, if he rebids diamonds we are much better placed if the opponents compete again in spades or hearts.

Anyway, it's been an interesting debate. By the way, I used to compete against your dad. He was/is some kind of tough, I can tell you that.

WinstonM