It's one thing for GIB to not cash an ace to defeat a slam.
But what could possibly cause GIB to *underlead* said Ace?
NB - I was South, and 2♣ may have put GIB off a little on the lead, but this is trick 2, and my hand is dummy.
Edit - this was MP, so I guess it was trying to defeat the contract by 2 tricks. But is it worth the risk? In hindsight maybe it actually is. I'm too used to playing IMPs. Ignore me.

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