[GijsH]

Reflecting on this hand: it is a 2-suited hand (AKQJ equals a 5card) and has 3 losers. Therefore a GF is in order. Notice also opponents are weaker, this means a) they are less likely to bid over our GF and they get excited by this hand and will bid game at the other table too.
So, I open a 2D and rebid 3D. with as little as ♥J109xx in dummy, 3NT will make. Or with ♦Kxx in dummy 5♦ has 50%.

[awm]

I am impressed that you can make 3nt opposite ♥JT9xx and out. I only count 7 tricks and it seems like in the process of playing diamonds out of your hand (you have no dummy entry) you will probably lose two diamonds and three hearts. Even if the defense plays spades for you, I don't particularly see how to make (now 8 tricks).

In fact even opposite a hand like:

xxx Kxxx xxx xxx

I would not say 3NT is that great. If the heart king scores, you have some chances (probably best is to take the spade finesse) but even replacing the ♥K with ♥A it seems like you're basically on a finesse.

As far as I can tell, the only hand that makes game really good that could not respond to a 1♦ call is a hand with a good fit for diamonds -- honor-third or something like five small will probably do it. But partner's much more likely to have a hand with heart length than diamond length -- and if partner really has five diamonds he might raise 1♦-3♦ or opponents might get into the bidding. There are plenty of hands with a heart honor where you go down after a strong opening. Keep in mind that 2♣ followed by 3♦ is basically a game force and if partner really has no points (and not 5-card ♦s) I don't see any game that has much play.

So that covers the case where partner has a hand that would pass 1♦. Seems close to the break even point. But the hands where partner BIDS over 1♦, you are MUCH better placed than after a strong 2♣/2♦ opening. It is quite likely that you get ALL your suits in via 1♦...3♣...3♠. Finding the best slam, or stopping in 3NT or 4NT, should be relatively easy on this hand once partner bids over the opening. Compare this to something like 2♣..3♦ where even showing your second suit is past 3NT.

[bearmum]

Playing SAYC or 2/1 (as opposed to a 1C forcing system like Precision -which I DO play ) I really think it's a 2♣ opener -- because 1♦(non forcing) is a GROSS underbid IMHO

Assuming that P answers 2♦ (waiting) I then bid 3♦, which IMHO describes MY hand well - over to partner to bid his hand
Hopefully with 2+ points he will bid his 4 card suit --- and we will get to game

[bearmum]

ochinko, on Apr 14 2005, 09:24 AM, said:

pbleighton, on Apr 13 2005, 11:34 AM, said:

1D. 3-1 in the majors, you are unlikely to be passed out, and you need the bidding space.

My thoughts exactly. Not only opps are likely to intervene but even partner will bid 2M with a weak hand and 6 cards if you play WJO.

Petko

(This post was AFTER my previous one where I answered the original question before looking at all the other posts )

BUT IF you don't play WJO - THEN 1♦(non forcing ) could mean U miss game if P has ONLY 4 points and NO 6 card suit for a WJS ( or am I missing something? )

AND even if you DO play WJS - what happens if P has 4 points and ONLY a 5 card suit??

[han]

Hi Bearmum,

The reason that I open 1D (which is indeed a gross underbid) are these:

1) My partner almost always responds with a 4-count and a five-card major (that's our style, we don't play WJS).

2) When my partner does respond, I can show a gameforcing hand with this exact shape whille still staying fairly low. This is impossible to do when opening 2C.

3) Over 1D, it will be easier for my partner to show that (s)he has some values, so we will more often reach a good slam.

4) If partner passes 1D, we may be saved by the opponents, and if so, we can still get to game.

5) If 1D is passed out, it may be right.

[bearmum]

Hannie, on Apr 23 2005, 06:22 AM, said:

Hi Bearmum,

The reason that I open 1D (which is indeed a gross underbid) are these:

1) My partner almost always responds with a 4-count and a five-card major (that's our style, we don't play WJS).

2) When my partner does respond, I can show a gameforcing hand with this exact shape whille still staying fairly low. This is impossible to do when opening 2C.

3) Over 1D, it will be easier for my partner to show that (s)he has some values, so we will more often reach a good slam.

4) If partner passes 1D, we may be saved by the opponents, and if so, we can still get to game.

5) If 1D is passed out, it may be right.

OK Hannie -- I agree with all your points IF partner will reply to 1♦ with only 4 points and a 5 card major 1♦ opening is probably the BEST thing to do --- however I believe that MOST (non expert)sayc players --especially if not an established partnership-- won't respond unless they have at least 6 points, so game might be missed if P has as few as 4 points

[cherdano]

Hi Han,

Hannie, on Apr 22 2005, 06:22 PM, said:

Hi Bearmum,
The reason that I open 1D (which is indeed a gross underbid) are these:
3) Over 1D, it will be easier for my partner to show that (s)he has some values, so we will more often reach a good slam.

I think this is less true in the system given by Gerben than in standard, since 2C specifically denies a GF.

I think if you go the effort to denie between a GF and a semi-forcing hand in your system, then there is a good case for using it in a hand like this one (and I wonder how many clicked on 1D just because that's what they would do in their partnership).

Arend

[the hog]

I strive to open 1 of a suit when I hold a 2 suiter, but this is too much.

As I have an excellent play for 4S opposite xxxxx Jxxxx xx x I have to open 2C on this hand. Anyone who expects 1) partner to bid holding this or 2) the opposition to come in, is living in cloud cuckoo land.

2C for me.