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What do you bid?

#21 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-March-18, 06:41

1NT, easy one.

Supporting as opener with 3 cards is pointless IMO, doing it when you know for sure there cannot be a fit.... Oh, well it can be better, who knows.
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#22 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2005-March-19, 06:38

I was sitting west. Opener had a 4-3-2-4. His partner passed the 1 bid, and they got a bottom (they went -1 tnx to great defense from my partner, while 2 was laydown). Whoever claims that your opponents will bid in this situation is playing too much against weak opponents imo, it's completely crazy to bid V vs NV after misfit auctions.

About the walsch thingy: the guys told me they only bypass a Major after 1-1, not after 1 response. I don't know who is right or wrong in this discussion, but they seem to play a simple "walsch-response scheme", nothing else.
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#23 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2005-March-19, 07:01

Free, on Mar 19 2005, 12:38 PM, said:

I was sitting west. Opener had a 4-3-2-4. His partner passed the 1 bid, and they got a bottom (they went -1 tnx to great defense from my partner, while 2 was laydown). Whoever claims that your opponents will bid in this situation is playing too much against weak opponents imo, it's completely crazy to bid V vs NV after misfit auctions.

About the walsch thingy: the guys told me they only bypass a Major after 1-1, not after 1 response. I don't know who is right or wrong in this discussion, but they seem to play a simple "walsch-response scheme", nothing else.

Which is why opener should have raised when he had the chance!

Eric
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#24 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2005-March-19, 08:26

EricK, on Mar 19 2005, 07:01 AM, said:

Free, on Mar 19 2005, 12:38 PM, said:

I was sitting west.  Opener had a 4-3-2-4.  His partner passed the 1 bid, and they got a bottom (they went -1 tnx to great defense from my partner, while 2 was laydown).  Whoever claims that your opponents will bid in this situation is playing too much against weak opponents imo, it's completely crazy to bid V vs NV after misfit auctions.

About the walsch thingy: the guys told me they only bypass a Major after 1-1, not after 1 response.  I don't know who is right or wrong in this discussion, but they seem to play a simple "walsch-response scheme", nothing else.

Which is why opener should have raised when he had the chance!

Eric

or bid 1nt instead of 1 :D
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#25 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2005-March-19, 08:47

luke warm, on Mar 19 2005, 02:26 PM, said:

EricK, on Mar 19 2005, 07:01 AM, said:

Free, on Mar 19 2005, 12:38 PM, said:

I was sitting west.  Opener had a 4-3-2-4.  His partner passed the 1 bid, and they got a bottom (they went -1 tnx to great defense from my partner, while 2 was laydown).  Whoever claims that your opponents will bid in this situation is playing too much against weak opponents imo, it's completely crazy to bid V vs NV after misfit auctions.

About the walsch thingy: the guys told me they only bypass a Major after 1-1, not after 1 response.  I don't know who is right or wrong in this discussion, but they seem to play a simple "walsch-response scheme", nothing else.

Which is why opener should have raised when he had the chance!

Eric

or bid 1nt instead of 1 :D

Will responder always return to 2 with 5? If so, playing 2 with Jxxxx opposite xx is no fun; but if not you would miss the 5-3 fit unless opener raises.

Eric
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#26 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2005-March-19, 09:08

EricK, on Mar 19 2005, 08:47 AM, said:

Will responder always return to 2 with 5? If so, playing 2 with Jxxxx opposite xx is no fun; but if not you would miss the 5-3 fit unless opener raises.

Eric

not always, no... when it seems right, yes... judgement call... the point is, you can play in 4/3 or 5/3 by raising (unless responder has 6, in which case he'll bid 2H himself) or 1nt by not raising... some think it's more important to show shape first (ie, deny 4 card or *good* 3 support), regardless of distribution... some don't
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#27 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-March-21, 10:54

Playing walsh 1-1-1 may still be balanced.

1NT is for sure a good contract.
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#28 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2005-March-21, 11:21

hrothgar, on Mar 17 2005, 07:11 PM, said:

pclayton, on Mar 18 2005, 03:52 AM, said:

1S does not promise an unbalanced hand. But in my partnerships it carries the same level of force as a reverse.Not standard, I know.

With this agreement, my biggest worry is that part holds a semi balanced 18-19 that spins 3N. Sometimes we will rebid 1S on a bare 4333 19 or a thin 18 like AQxx xx AQx AQxx.

The original post explictly noted that 1 is non-forcing
Partner doesn't have a balanced 18-19 count.

The original post said 1 was non-forcing. It didn't deny a balanced 18-19.

Opposite a mangy 5 or 6 count with 3 spades, 1 can be a very attractive spot.
"Phil" on BBO
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#29 User is offline   hutchau 

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Posted 2005-March-23, 02:20

This is a very basic question.
As I like to play
[1] The 1S bid confirms an unbalanced [or semi balanced with values in 2 suits] hand with 4+ clubs & 4+ spades....usually 5+ clubs
[2] with a balanced hand & quite a few semibalanced hands with 4 spades I bid 1NT & use a checkback of some sort over this 1NT.
There seem to be 2 possible bids
[1]1NT
[2]Pass or 2S. It would help to know the strength required to bid 2S rather than 1Sas used by the partnership.If 17+ then PASS is correct , otherwise 2S.If undiscussed I will take my chances with 2S as lots of GOOD things may happen and at worst we will be 1 down.I do not shy away from playing a moysian as many do at BBO
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#30 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2005-March-23, 10:17

Free, on Mar 17 2005, 04:33 AM, said:

Bidding goes (partner starts, opps are quiet):

1 - 1
1 - ?
You hold:

Dealer: North
Vul: E/W
Scoring: MP
QTx
JT9xx
A87x
x
 


What do you bid?

Is this a companion hand to:

J1086
K106
8
AKJ106

from another thread? I guess it can't quite be.
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#31 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2005-March-23, 10:21

hrothgar, on Mar 17 2005, 10:11 PM, said:

The original post explictly noted that 1 is non-forcing
Partner doesn't have a balanced 18-19 count.

How does the non-forcing nature of 1 preclude the possibility of 18-19 balanced?
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#32 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2005-March-23, 13:26

TimG, on Mar 23 2005, 05:17 PM, said:

Free, on Mar 17 2005, 04:33 AM, said:

Bidding goes (partner starts, opps are quiet):

1 - 1
1 - ?
You hold:

<!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> North </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> E/W </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> MP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </span> </th> <td> QTx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> JT9xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> A87x </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> x </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end -->

What do you bid?

Is this a companion hand to:

J1086
K106
8
AKJ106

from another thread? I guess it can't quite be.

No, as I said, he had a 4-3-2-4, no 4-3-1-5. Btw, it's a hand played f2f and probably nobody reads this forum except me...
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#33 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2005-March-23, 13:27

TimG, on Mar 23 2005, 05:21 PM, said:

hrothgar, on Mar 17 2005, 10:11 PM, said:

The original post explictly noted that 1 is non-forcing
Partner doesn't have a balanced 18-19 count.

How does the non-forcing nature of 1 preclude the possibility of 18-19 balanced?

I think with 18-19 they'll bid 2NT and find a fit using checkback stayman...
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