Your bid
#1
Posted 2005-March-15, 07:50
98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1) 1C=1H(OPP)=?
2) assume your LHO bids 2s if possible:
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?
#2
Posted 2005-March-15, 07:59
#3
Posted 2005-March-15, 08:20
#4
Posted 2005-March-15, 08:29
98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?
My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+♠ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2♦. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.
so my auction so far is...
1C-(1H)-DBL-(2S)
3C-(Pa)-?
Now for my bid. I have yummy club fit, I have a heart stopper behind the heart bidder, and I have a maximum for my first double (it is sad partner doesn't fit for my diamonds). I will bid 3♥, showing a heart stopper, by implication a fit and maximum, and looking for a spade stopper. The club KQx is just too good to tamely pass, even not vul at imps.
#5
Posted 2005-March-15, 08:35
1. neg dble
2. 1NT
3. 2D
Although I have only 3S I don't mind a neg dble, however I would choose 1NT. I can't bridge myself to bid 2D but would not quibble much if my partner did.
Hard to know what is best in the second part not knowing how the auction really went. However I would bid 3S over 3C and raise 4C to 5 if we have no S stop. It may go one down, 2 on a real bad day. My best is we play 3NT and scoop up 9 easy tricks.
#6
Posted 2005-March-15, 08:40
Then 3♥ on 3♣ showing a ♥ stopper and problem in ♠
Alain
#7
Posted 2005-March-15, 08:51
Why should I have 1NT as an option with 11 HCP? For me the choice is between double (showing no good bid and less than 4 spades) and 2NT (showing invitational with heart stopper).
I don't like a (non-forcing or forcing) 2♦ with such a bad suit, especially when partner does not rate to have many diamonds in support after opening 1♣.
Probably with only Kx it is best to bid dbl. After (2♠) 3♣ (p) I will bid 3♥ showing a stopper. If partner stops spades we'll be in 3NT.
#8
Posted 2005-March-15, 09:01
#9
Posted 2005-March-15, 10:58
mike777, on Mar 15 2005, 08:50 AM, said:
98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1) 1C=1H(OPP)=?
2) assume your LHO bids 2s if possible:
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?
I bid 2D at first round. After pd's 3C, I bid 3S. pass pd's voluntary 3C? No way! We sure have a game, and even slam is possible.
#10
Posted 2005-March-15, 12:34
inquiry, on Mar 15 2005, 09:29 AM, said:
98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?
My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+♠ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2♦. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.
Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.
#11
Posted 2005-March-15, 13:01
ochinko, on Mar 15 2005, 02:34 PM, said:
inquiry, on Mar 15 2005, 09:29 AM, said:
98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?
My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+♠ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2♦. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.
Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.
Take a look at page 184, where two auctions are given
1♣-(1♦)-DBL and
1♣-(1♥)-DBL
and they say.
Quote
I agree with all of this but the part about it not being a big deal. I think it is a big deal.
#12
Posted 2005-March-15, 13:20
- hrothgar
#13
Posted 2005-March-15, 13:22
#14
Posted 2005-March-15, 14:49
inquiry, on Mar 15 2005, 02:01 PM, said:
ochinko, on Mar 15 2005, 02:34 PM, said:
inquiry, on Mar 15 2005, 09:29 AM, said:
98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?
My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+♠ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2♦. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.
Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.
Take a look at page 184, where two auctions are given
1♣-(1♦)-DBL and
1♣-(1♥)-DBL
and they say.
Quote
I agree with all of this but the part about it not being a big deal. I think it is a big deal.
My book is a translation, so obviously the pages don't match, but I found your quote. Six pages earlier they say something like that:
Quote
1C/1D - (1Sp) - Dbl
1C/1D - (2H/2Sp) - Dbl
1H/1Sp - (2C/2D) - Dbl
where the double should guarantee four (or five) cards in the unbid major. Otherwise you would hamper your constructive (and competitive) bidding, which often will be targeted towards finding a major fit.
Obviously they suggest different action after 1H and after 1Sp intervention, and I missed the difference.
#15
Posted 2005-March-15, 18:17
#16
Posted 2005-March-21, 20:32
joker_gib, on Mar 15 2005, 02:40 PM, said:
Then 3♥ on 3♣ showing a ♥ stopper and problem in ♠
Alain
I am with you, 2♦ NFB to me.
#17
Posted 2005-March-31, 03:16
when pd bid 3♣, i will bid 3♥ show stoper or bid ♠ ask pd's stoper
for 3nt
#18
Posted 2005-March-31, 03:27

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