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Your bid

#1 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 07:50

Imps NV vs. VUL

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX




1) 1C=1H(OPP)=?

2) assume your LHO bids 2s if possible:

1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?
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#2 User is offline   ochinko 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 07:59

In Robson's style, which I play, 2D show 3+ clubs as well, so I bid them, then pass 3C.
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#3 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 08:20

I bid 1N. Then if partner can't suggest NT over 2♠, I'll let him play in 3♣.
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#4 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 08:29

Imps NV vs. VUL

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?

My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+♠ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2♦. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.

so my auction so far is...

1C-(1H)-DBL-(2S)
3C-(Pa)-?

Now for my bid. I have yummy club fit, I have a heart stopper behind the heart bidder, and I have a maximum for my first double (it is sad partner doesn't fit for my diamonds). I will bid 3♥, showing a heart stopper, by implication a fit and maximum, and looking for a spade stopper. The club KQx is just too good to tamely pass, even not vul at imps.
--Ben--

#5 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 08:35

I considered my options for my first bid to be
1. neg dble
2. 1NT
3. 2D

Although I have only 3S I don't mind a neg dble, however I would choose 1NT. I can't bridge myself to bid 2D but would not quibble much if my partner did.

Hard to know what is best in the second part not knowing how the auction really went. However I would bid 3S over 3C and raise 4C to 5 if we have no S stop. It may go one down, 2 on a real bad day. My best is we play 3NT and scoop up 9 easy tricks.
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#6 User is offline   joker_gib 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 08:40

2♦ : not GF in french standard !

Then 3♥ on 3♣ showing a ♥ stopper and problem in ♠

Alain
Alain
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#7 User is offline   Gerben47 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 08:51

What would 2NT be after 1♣ (1♥)?

Why should I have 1NT as an option with 11 HCP? For me the choice is between double (showing no good bid and less than 4 spades) and 2NT (showing invitational with heart stopper).

I don't like a (non-forcing or forcing) 2♦ with such a bad suit, especially when partner does not rate to have many diamonds in support after opening 1♣.

Probably with only Kx it is best to bid dbl. After (2♠) 3♣ (p) I will bid 3♥ showing a stopper. If partner stops spades we'll be in 3NT.
Two wrongs don't make a right, but three lefts do!
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#8 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 09:01

Since p has failed to double or bid 2nt over 2s, are all of you saying bid 3nt with any S stopper at all partner?
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#9 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 10:58

mike777, on Mar 15 2005, 08:50 AM, said:

Imps NV vs. VUL

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX




1) 1C=1H(OPP)=?

2) assume your LHO bids 2s if possible:

1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?

I bid 2D at first round. After pd's 3C, I bid 3S. pass pd's voluntary 3C? No way! We sure have a game, and even slam is possible.
Senshu
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#10 User is offline   ochinko 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 12:34

inquiry, on Mar 15 2005, 09:29 AM, said:

Imps NV vs. VUL

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?

My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+♠ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2♦. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.

Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.
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#11 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 13:01

ochinko, on Mar 15 2005, 02:34 PM, said:

inquiry, on Mar 15 2005, 09:29 AM, said:

Imps NV vs. VUL

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?

My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+♠ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2♦. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.

Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.

Take a look at page 184, where two auctions are given

1♣-(1♦)-DBL and
1♣-(1♥)-DBL

and they say.

Quote

What does the double guarantee? What does it deny? It’s probably no big deal, but we would suggest (contrary to popular practice) that double in these sequences should deny a fair four-card major.


I agree with all of this but the part about it not being a big deal. I think it is a big deal.
--Ben--

#12 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 13:20

Also double (denying 4 spades) followed by 3H for me. The hand gets better with every bid, soon I'll be thinking about slam!
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#13 User is offline   flytoox 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 13:22

2D, 10+. After pd's 3C, I bid 3N. Pd has at most AJTxxx in clubs, so he must have spade stopper. We dont need much from pd to make 3N.
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#14 User is offline   ochinko 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 14:49

inquiry, on Mar 15 2005, 02:01 PM, said:

ochinko, on Mar 15 2005, 02:34 PM, said:

inquiry, on Mar 15 2005, 09:29 AM, said:

Imps NV vs. VUL

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX
1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S
3C=P=?

My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+♠ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2♦. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.

Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.

Take a look at page 184, where two auctions are given

1♣-(1♦)-DBL and
1♣-(1♥)-DBL

and they say.

Quote

What does the double guarantee? What does it deny? It’s probably no big deal, but we would suggest (contrary


I agree with all of this but the part about it not being a big deal. I think it is a big deal.

My book is a translation, so obviously the pages don't match, but I found your quote. Six pages earlier they say something like that:

Quote

We believe that informative doubles should define distribution only in sequences like
1C/1D - (1Sp) - Dbl
1C/1D - (2H/2Sp) - Dbl
1H/1Sp - (2C/2D) - Dbl
where the double should guarantee four (or five) cards in the unbid major. Otherwise you would hamper your constructive (and competitive) bidding, which often will be targeted towards finding a major fit.

Obviously they suggest different action after 1H and after 1Sp intervention, and I missed the difference.
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#15 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2005-March-15, 18:17

i agree with ben (almost)... i would bid 2D first time and 3h next, asking for a spade stopper
"Paul Krugman is a stupid person's idea of what a smart person sounds like." Newt Gingrich (paraphrased)
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#16 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-March-21, 20:32

joker_gib, on Mar 15 2005, 02:40 PM, said:

2♦ : not GF in french standard !

Then 3♥ on 3♣ showing a ♥ stopper and problem in ♠

Alain

I am with you, 2♦ NFB to me.
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#17 User is offline   oldgun 

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Posted 2005-March-31, 03:16

2♦ or 1nt

when pd bid 3♣, i will bid 3♥ show stoper or bid ♠ ask pd's stoper

for 3nt
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#18 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2005-March-31, 03:27

In SAYC, this is a 2♦, forcing for one round but not promissing a second bid. Of course, it is not the optimal agreement, but that's what I play with most pick-up partners. I will take 3♣ as forcing (is that correct?) and bid 3♥.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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