temp3600, on Mar 10 2005, 04:28 PM, said:
About the first hand, for those who think 2♠ is an underbid, why cue-bid 2♣ ? What's wrong with 3♠ ?
Actually, while I agreed that I would be in game, I never addressed the auction other than to say I thought WEST's first pass was wrong. I would have opened 1
♦. There would be no way for me to avoid 4
♠ after opening 1
♦, but on the surface it looks like a fair game. You may win 4S, 1D ruff, 3D, 1C, and 1H. You could win 2H, and 2D, 1D ruff, 1C and 4S as another option. It was unlucky to lose 2S, and 1D, and 1C and 1H... I am not sure what the other lose was for down three.
But assuming I passed as WEST, East would overcall 1
♥, and I would bid 1
♠ as WEST. Even though I love the unassuming cue-bid, I think here, since overcaller has already bid, 2
♣ would not be unassuming but would show a stronger hand than this. A simple raise to 2
♠ might be on three card support and might be a little weaker than what I have, but will not be as weak as KJ9x KQxxx xx xx, partner was a passed hand after all. I think I would mearly raise to 2
♠ and see if partner can make another call with known fit. 3
♠ is an overbid because if you raise to 2
♠, your partner with fair values will bid again.
Another item about the auction.. what was 3
♣? With both opponents cue-bidding the auction must now be game force, but let's assume that 3
♣ was a strong game try along the lines of what WEST had. What should EAST bid be over the double. That is Pass = what?, REDBL = what? 3
♠ = what? and 4
♠ = what?
If 3
♣ was game try, not game force, over the dbl, I think
PASS is modest game try,
3
♠ is I am as weak as I can be for my previous bidding
3
♦/3
♥ better game try than pass
4
♠, ok lets bid the game you invited me too.
With this said, if 2
♣ showed a sound raise to 2
♠, if 3
♣ invited game, then over teh dbl, EAST did 100% right by biddign just 3
♠. Giving his partner a chance to stop short of game.
Bidding goes:
West North East South
pass (1♣) 1♥ pass
1♠ pass 2♣ pass
3♣ (dbl) 3♠ pass
4♠ all pass