Playing with a new partner and without discussing whether fit jumps in competition apply (so that a 3S bid to show hearts and spades is not available). What do you bid over 2♦? If possible, explain your bid too... :-)
What is your bid For this question, no fit jump
#1
Posted 2005-February-14, 08:45
Playing with a new partner and without discussing whether fit jumps in competition apply (so that a 3S bid to show hearts and spades is not available). What do you bid over 2♦? If possible, explain your bid too... :-)
#2
Posted 2005-February-14, 08:59
#3
Posted 2005-February-14, 09:02
after (5♦)-P-(P).
Arend
#4
Posted 2005-February-14, 09:22
If playing NFB then X.
Over 5d and p by partner then 5H.
#5
Posted 2005-February-14, 10:58
#6
Posted 2005-February-14, 11:33
#7 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2005-February-14, 11:56
#8
Posted 2005-February-14, 12:13
The problem with this is LHO might come in with 5D and pass to me. I may regret then. At the moment I will stick with 2S.
#9
Posted 2005-February-14, 12:30
It is important to show the ♥ support and strength before LHO pre-empts us.
Even if LHO doesn't pre-empt I am happy to make a fit showing bid rather than an ambiguous force. If LHO is silent I will be able to show the ♠ later anyway.
Eric
#10
Posted 2005-February-14, 14:35
#11
Posted 2005-February-14, 14:49
#12
Posted 2005-February-14, 15:00
Agree completely. Do we have a double fit in spades or clubs?
Peter
#13
Posted 2005-February-14, 15:42
Let;s discuss the bid with the least support yet.. 3♦
The bidding continued...
1♥ (2♦) 3♦ Pass
3NT (Pass) ?
What do you bid now. For the spade bidders, we will have that auction in a bit....
Ben
#14
Posted 2005-February-14, 16:12
Peter
#15
Posted 2005-February-14, 16:21
After partner rebids 3N, I'll cue with 4♠. Although partner may have wasted diamond values, my hand is a lot better than a minimum and I need to say something. Partner should have at least 17-18 HCP, maybe more.
Tysen
#16
Posted 2005-February-14, 17:30
♠ AQJT4
♥ KQ7
♦ 3
♣ Q762
after
1♥ (2♦) 3♦ Pass
3NT (Pass) ?
i bid 4h... someone (rubins?) once said, look for slam if a perfect minimum makes it a laydown... what would be a perfect minimum here? 2 red aces and the ♣K maybe? i don't think i'll go slamming, partner probably knows i have a decent hand
#17
Posted 2005-February-14, 18:02
I do not see why p must have 15-17 or 17-18 hcp or 4d for rebid of 3nt. Note 3d does not 100% promise heart support, only very often. P bid of 3nt is just showing his values.
#18
Posted 2005-February-14, 18:12
or something similar? IMO, this whole sequence got distorted by bidding 3D to "protect" against a hypothetical 5D bid on my left. Although I only have 3 hearts, my hand seems to be worth about 7 tricks +/- in a heart contract: how do I catch up now? Or, have I caught up by bidding 4S?
#19
Posted 2005-February-14, 18:15
1) I said "sounds like 15-17", not "must". You have only shown limit plus values in support of hearts, which may include distribution, so you may have 8 hcp with a singleton, so it would be pretty aggressive to go to 3NT on a 13 count. With 18+, he might not make a "to play" bid. Pd should also have at least one diamond stopper, leading me to think 2542 is a possible distribution.
2) For the purpose of this post/poll, 3D establishes a heart fit unconditionally.
Peter
#20
Posted 2005-February-14, 19:48
If the suit were not so good and the clubs a little better, I would prefer the splinter bid of 4D; However, I would think that partner would expect a little more in clubs for that bid and although my hand is somewhat slammish, it is not as slammish in my opinion as 4D implies.
A great deal here I believe has to do with your interpretation of what a splinter bid means. Is it simply a game-forcing hand with shortness, or is it a slam invite with shortness? In my mind, there is a subtle difference between the two.
WinstonM

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- 1♥ 2♦ ?