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BW Hand of Death comes a'callin'

Poll: A42 J9 AKQJ72 A9 (36 member(s) have cast votes)

What do you open playing 2/1

  1. 1D (18 votes [50.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 50.00%

  2. 2C (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  3. 2N (16 votes [44.44%])

    Percentage of vote: 44.44%

  4. 3N (2 votes [5.56%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.56%

  5. Other (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

If you open 1D, what do you do over a 1S response

  1. 2H (8 votes [22.22%])

    Percentage of vote: 22.22%

  2. 2S (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  3. 2N (5 votes [13.89%])

    Percentage of vote: 13.89%

  4. 3C (5 votes [13.89%])

    Percentage of vote: 13.89%

  5. 3D (2 votes [5.56%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.56%

  6. 3S (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  7. 3N (11 votes [30.56%])

    Percentage of vote: 30.56%

  8. 4D (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  9. 4S (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  10. I would never open 1D (5 votes [13.89%])

    Percentage of vote: 13.89%

  11. Other (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#1 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2013-April-20, 15:57



Bridgeworld Hand of Death variant #1743. What is your plan playing a variant of 2/1 that does not have a specific gadget describing this hand type (ie, no multi with a strong diamond option).

Bonus - if you open 1, what do you plan on doing over a 1 response?
Chris Gibson
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#2 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 02:56

1 + 2NT, but I am used to sound responses and 2NT is not passed out ever (well very hardly at least).

But actually I am tempted to rebid 3NT, 2NT has the upside of finding 5-3 spades, but this hand is not looking for that.
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#3 User is offline   Flem72 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 06:53

View PostCSGibson, on 2013-April-20, 15:57, said:



Bridgeworld Hand of Death variant #1743. What is your plan playing a variant of 2/1 that does not have a specific gadget describing this hand type (ie, no multi with a strong diamond option).

Bonus - if you open 1, what do you plan on doing over a 1 response?


I favor a fairly natural treatment, but maybe excluded as a specific gadget: Open 1D, rebid 2 forcing K-S C, treating the 2C rebid as a reverse. Responder is required to rebid 2S with 5 and has a 2D out with any bad hand; opener's continuations can show this kind of monster. I like to play this way in p'ships that have adopted mini-splinters.
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#4 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 07:01

2NT works reasonably well on a value basis as long as partner does not have a good suit. For instance, opposite a 3433 you need something like:

Kxx
KQxx
xxx
KJx

to make slam cold. 2NT is a slight underbid, though.

Opposite:

KQTxx
Axx
xx
xxx

You will languish in game when grand is excellent.

Playing my way I can open 1 and rebid 2NT forcing (various). Partner bids 3 on any non-shaded response, and now I bid 3 showing a game-force with long diamonds and three spades. 4 (cue confirming spades as trumps) and RKC would follow on my second example hand.

Playing standard, you could sell me 1 followed by 2. If treating as balanced, I would go for 2 followed by whatever shows a balanced 22-23 or 23-24.
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#5 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 07:43

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-April-21, 07:01, said:

Playing standard, you could sell me 1 followed by 2.


With a kick under the table to let partner holding 4-4 or 5-4 majors know that this isn't a real suit? :/ I get the feeling you WILL end up playing hearts on a 4-2 fit because partner will insist on them (at least my partners would).

I think 1D followed by 3N should show this kind of hand, though you could also open 2NT.

ahydra
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#6 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 07:49

View Postahydra, on 2013-April-21, 07:43, said:

With a kick under the table to let partner holding 4-4 or 5-4 majors know that this isn't a real suit? :/ I get the feeling you WILL end up playing hearts on a 4-2 fit because partner will insist on them (at least my partners would).

I think 1D followed by 3N should show this kind of hand, though you could also open 2NT.

ahydra


You will play in hearts exactly 0% of the time, unless partner makes an insufficient club bid and corrects to hearts, since you can always return to spades or no trumps.

Partner can't have 4-4 in the majors - he would respond One Heart, so when he raises hearts, he guarantees five or more spades. 3 now, sets spades as trumps for partnerships who have discussed this position (it's standard theory so I can usually do it undiscussed). A more pure example would be a 3361 hand with 16+ points.
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#7 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 10:39

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-April-21, 07:01, said:

Playing standard, you could sell me 1 followed by 2. If treating as balanced, I would go for 2 followed by whatever shows a balanced 22-23 or 23-24.


I really object to these multi-point upgrades for balanced hands. OK, you have some protection because partner's a passed hand, but when you show a balanced hand, partner evaluates based on combined HCP. When you are 4 HCP out you can have a nasty accident. Two hands in the last year that I can think of: 4NT-1 by us when partner upgraded an 18-count to a 2NT opening (which for us is a good 20-bad 22) and I had a void in his 6-card club suit; and 7NTx-1 against Forrester and Gold in the premier league. (Auction 2C-2D-2NT-7NT-P-P-dbl-P- P-P, comment "+100?" from partner to his screenmate before seeing the opening lead)

You gave KQ10xx Axx xx xxx. I give you in return KQ10xx Qxx xx Kxx. Opposite 23-24 balanced partner will just bid 6NT and get on with life. (OK, I know it might also make.)
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#8 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 11:04

View PostFrancesHinden, on 2013-April-21, 10:39, said:

Two hands in the last year that I can think of: 4NT-1 by us when partner upgraded an 18-count to a 2NT opening (which for us is a good 20-bad 22) and I had a void in his 6-card club suit;


Maybe he forgot he had a method for showing that hand after opening 1. Anyway, as we both play, there are solutions to this problem after opening 1.

I've just generated a few hands, and my conclusion is that for no trumps, you are right - the hand should not be upgraded to 23-24.
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#9 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 12:14

Need prior discussion on this one( just made it up ).
after 3 passes :

1D - 1S
3C! ( 18+, GF, may be artificial )
.... - 3D! ( asks )
??
a) 3H! = long , artificial ( can't have 4 cards , would reverse : 2H over 1S )

b) 3S = 3 cards

c) 3NT = real
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( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

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#10 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 14:33

Other variant on popular auction choices: If you open 2N, partner shows a 5-5 major suit slam try (sequence 3H-3S, 4H). Remember, though, limited by being a passed hand). You have at your disposal 6 keycard blackwood if you want it.
Chris Gibson
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#11 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 15:56

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-April-21, 07:01, said:

<snip>
Opposite:

KQTxx
Axx
xx
xxx

You will languish in game when grand is excellent.



Only if you play a really poor system, we break the transfer to 4 showing 5 good diamonds and 3 decent spades so for example Axx, KQx, AKxxx, Ax is quite likely so visualising a slam is not difficult and it should at least be investigated.
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#12 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2013-April-22, 11:12

I'm late to the thread, but given the system constraints (which are in fact the constraints with which I play) I opt for opening 2N.

The BW used to (and maybe still does) have a Problem D scenario, in which the criticism was sometimes voiced that the answers often appeared to be impacted by knowledge of partner's problematic action.

Thus, were we told that partner would respond to 1 via 1, I suspect a lot of people would be happy with 1, intending to rebid 3N.

Indeed, were I to be sure that partner would respond in hearts, I'd be happy with 1.

However, I still prefer 2N, because I see relatively little downside, and happen to think that this is a fair, tho flawed, assessment of the hand.

Most importantly, while I think we can handle just about all responses to 1 other than 1, a 1
response really does pose a horrific problem. If I did open 1, I'd jumpshift into clubs, but with trepidation.
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#13 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-April-22, 11:24

The Bridge World panel tends to recommend 2 as the rebid on this pattern (eg KQJ A2 A76542 AQ March 1994).

On that occasion, 2 finished comfortably ahead of 2NT with 3 a distant third. There were, more justifiably than here, many complaints over the failure to open 2NT, but that was unthinkable in the Kaplan era.
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#14 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2013-April-22, 15:01

For better or worse everyone I know now just opens these hands 2N and lives with missing the slams, since honestly, they are pretty hard to bid anyway.

If i played an artificial method that allowed me to show a very powerful minor 1-suiter (but not quite a 2C opener) over a 1M response, then I would open 1D.

Edit: Deleted some nonsense.
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#15 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2013-April-24, 07:19

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-April-22, 11:24, said:

The Bridge World panel tends to recommend 2 as the rebid on this pattern (eg KQJ A2 A76542 AQ March 1994).


Really? We bid 2 too, but we have a gadget (2 asks, 3 shows this hand).
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#16 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-April-24, 07:40

View PostVampyr, on 2013-April-24, 07:19, said:

Really? We bid 2 too, but we have a gadget (2 asks, 3 shows this hand).


The database never lies.
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