Balanced Maximum passed How do you bid?
#1
Posted 2004-December-24, 04:30
You hold
KQJ4
QJ7
K109
654
playing strong NTs,
RHO pass, so do you and your LHO. In fourth seat, your p open 1D (3+)
Your bid?
If you respond 1S your p will rebid 1NT, your bid then?
#3
Posted 2004-December-24, 05:36
#4
Posted 2004-December-24, 06:33
Having said this, if you passed, I bid 1♠ and rebid 3NT.
#5
Posted 2004-December-24, 07:12
#6
Posted 2004-December-24, 08:25
Over 1NT here, you need to know only one thing. Will your partner open with a balanced 11 count in fourth chair? Especially with only 3 spades (pearson point of only 14). If the answer is no, then bid 3NT.
Here is an idea if you play xyz, you could bid a game forcing 2♦ suggesting that you passed an opening hand. If your partner bids only 2NT you pass, if he bids, as I suspect, 2♥ you can bid 2NT giving him a chance to pass the game forcing auction knowing you are better than if you had bid 2♣ followed by 2NT. But really, I assume your partner has more than 11 and probably more than 12 so you want to be in game. Sure it might not make, but 12 opposite 12 or more has great chances.
Ben
#7
Posted 2004-December-24, 10:50
flytoox, on Dec 24 2004, 08:12 AM, said:
Agree with flytoox.
#8
Posted 2004-December-24, 11:07
I dont understnd those two answers, direct 1nt and direct 2nt, what is this, we didnt find an ace or something. after the 1nt if partner is aware of the rule or 15 ill bid 3nt, iif he doesnt or he is normaly an overbidder or he is a begginer id bid 2nt.
#9
Posted 2004-December-24, 12:03
#10
Posted 2004-December-24, 12:26
This is a CLEAR pass in the first place, unless I'm playing a mini NT. The intermediates tell me that a 12-14 NT is OK.
What do over pard's 1N rebid isn't hard either - its a clear invite; whether that be 2♣ or 2N.
#11
Posted 2004-December-27, 06:27
pclayton, on Dec 24 2004, 01:26 PM, said:
You have 12 HCP and K109 in ♦
I know I don't have an ace but, sorry, Phil, I can't pass that hand !
This is a CLEAR opening
Alain
#12
Posted 2004-December-27, 10:24
#13
Posted 2004-December-27, 20:41
After 1nt from partner, 3nt is clear imo.
#14
Posted 2004-December-28, 02:40
Free, on Dec 24 2004, 07:33 AM, said:
... , I bid 2NT.
bridge blog001:
http://cf71632485.spaces.live.com/blog/cns...!1015.entry
bridge blog002:
http://cvl7163cf2485...st-22291-1.html
"You are not thinking. You are merely being logical". - Neils Bohr
#15
Posted 2004-December-28, 04:56
So after a 4th seat opener and a 1NT rebid, your partner has a solid opening. Draw your conclusions: 2NT is wrong!
#16
Posted 2004-December-28, 14:16
#17
Posted 2004-December-29, 00:47
bridgeboy, on Dec 24 2004, 05:30 AM, said:
Then only 3NT to bid!
http://cf71632485.spaces.live.com/blog/cns...!1015.entry
bridge blog002:
http://cvl7163cf2485...st-22291-1.html
#18
Posted 2004-December-29, 03:20
Fluffy, on Dec 28 2004, 03:16 PM, said:
Totally agree !
#19
Posted 2004-December-29, 04:49
#20
Posted 2004-December-29, 07:12
I think the final count shows players favouring a 3NT after 1S bid. At the table as long as you do not sign off in 1nt.. you should get to 3NT which is around 40 to 50%.
Partner held: xx AKxx Jxxx AJx
I was interested to see if players would upgrade their 'non-opening' into a GF hand when p didn't really bid anything to improve their hand. It turns out to be so. I personally chose 2NT after 1S but gave partner some agonising moments whether to accept. I certainly would not fault him for passing 2nt
Comments welcomed.. thanks

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