[UdcaDenny]

What is the difference in answering 1NT and then bidding 2 in partners major and a direct 2 in major. To clarify: 1H-1NT-2C/D-2H or 1H-2H

[Stephen Tu]

Direct 2 of a major shows 3 card (or more) support and some range up to about a bad 10 depending on agreements. Bottom of range is 6/7/bad 8, latter two are usually termed "semi-constructive" and "constructive" raises respectively.

Bidding 1nt and taking a preference to 2 of partner's major shows either:
1. only 2 cd support, and 6- bad 10 pts (could be "false preference", with up to 4 cds in opener's shown minor, since opener's minor can be 2/3 cds, no guarantee that the minor fit is better than 5-2 major fit, and it caters to partner being on the upper end of his wide range, could have a game if both players are upper end of range).

2. 3 cd support but below your direct raising range, so ~(3/4)-(5/6/7). This is a tactical maneuver to try to play 2M, which will reasonably often make, but dissuade opponents from balancing aggressively since they don't know if you have a true fit or not. (Not having a true fit increases your defensive potential relative to your offensive potential, they will less likely want to compete if you have 7 cd fit only). So you are trying to shut out the opponents, while at the same time not encouraging partner to bid game or make marginal game tries that you aren't accepting and sometimes will go down. You'll likely only get to game if partner has a GF jump-shift.

[Free]

1M-2M typically shows 8-10HCP with a 3 card fit. This means the surrounding hands with fit have to bid something else.
- With a weak hand you want to slow partner down from being too optimistic. You start with 1NT and correct to 2M. This shows either 5-7HCP with a 3 card fit, or some non-invitational hand with 2 card fit (= preference). These 2 handtypes have about the same playing strength, and if opener insists on bidding you can bid the Major again to show you actually hold a 3 card fit.
- With an invitational hand (11-12HCP) with 3 card fit you start with 1NT and jump to 3M.
- With 4+ card fit Bergen raises apply, so this is not relevant here.

[aguahombre]

Caution: do not assume Free's excellent presentation of what many pairs do is typical, or what your partner will do without discussion.

Forcing NT, constructive single raises, and Bergen ---if they are a package ---need agreement.

[ArtK78]

Both of the first two responses above are correct and wrong at the same time.

In any system, the meaning of the direct raise to 2 of a major is defined. If you play Bergen raises, then the direct raise is defined as 5-10 HCP and exactly 3 card support (or 4333). If you play "standard" raises, then the strength of a direct raise is the same, but you could have 4 card support (even 5 card support is possible). Some players play constructive raises, in which a direct raise shows the top of a standard direct raise - 8-10 HCP (some make it even stronger - 9-11 HCP).

So, the meaning of the delayed raise - 1NT followed by 2 of the major - is defined as everything that the direct raise is not. Often, it is just a preference. Opener bid 2 of a new suit over 1NT and you have a minimum responding hand with 2 (possibly 3) of opener's major and inadequate support to play in opener's second suit. If you play constructive raises, then the delayed raise includes those hands with support but too weak for a constructive raise. And, as mentioned above, perhaps you bid 1NT followed by 2 of the major as a tactical ploy with 3 or 4 card support but less than the strength to even respond to one of a major.

So, if you know what the definition of your direct raise to 2 of a major is, you will be able to determine which hands fall into the delayed raise category.