[broze]

Some auctions that came up today. Answer any or all.


1)

What is the difference between:

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and

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2)

How do people play this scramble?

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3)

What is the standard (2/1; strong NT) meaning for 3♦here if you play support doubles? Is it just a hand that wants to play 3NT with a ♦ stop opposite (e.g. Axx Kx Jx AKQJTx) or do you include a good spades raise too?

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3i) Playing good-bad 2NT (and support doubles) what is the difference between the auction above and

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?

3ii) 3♠ here - GF and start cue bidding?

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This post has been edited by broze: 2013-February-18, 19:36

[the_clown]

1.The first one is definitely stronger demanding a cuebid.
In the second one responder is allowed to sign off with a minimum hand.

2.Any 2 suits (clubs included)

3. The important question is do you play support X or does X show a strong hand. Do you play good/bad. Strong or weak NT. Without this information I cant answer your questions.

[broze]

the_clown, on 2013-February-18, 19:28, said:

3. The important question is do you play support X or does X show a strong hand. Do you play good/bad. Strong or weak NT. Without this information I cant answer your questions.

Good point - edited accordingly.

[Zelandakh]

For Hand 1, I have the opposite idea to the clown. The second auction is a clear slam try and uses whatever method you have agreed for slam auctions with 4 level agreement. For me that is conditional RKCB (1st step bad, others steps good + key cards), for most it will be cue bids. The first auction is unusual because the cue bid will normally mean interest in 3NT. I think there are 2 ways of playing this. The first is for this to be an invitational raise and therefore non-forcing. The second is that Opener has a hand that is worth a slam try opposite a partner without wasted heart values. The latter would be my choice and tends to suggest heart shoortage.

I do agree with the clown on Hand 2 though. Any 2 suits seems right to me.

For Hand 3, I am fond of the general rule that any undiscussed cue bid is to be treated as fourth suit forcing, that is either a hand looking for a stopper or a hand too strong to bid directly (if the latter makes sense - see Hand 1). Here we do not need to include a strong raise into 3♦ because direct jump raises already show values.

I have to be honest and say that I am not 100% sure what the standard agreement for auction 3i is. A sensible meaning (to me) might be showing a half stopper in diamonds. For auction 3ii, you have to decide if bidding 3♠ direct is stronger or weaker than this. I think the original idea is that a direct 3♠ is game forcing while 2NT followed by 3♠ is only invitational. It is probably better the other way round though. An alternative idea would be to continue to jump to 4 with the game forcing hand and use this delayed 3♠ sequence as a 2.5♠ raise. I am interested in hearing the methods that our more experienced posters use here.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

#1 if you think it an option to stop in 4m, than one is inv. to 5C, the other showes SI.
I dont, but since 3m via 2NT is limited, it makes sense to play the raise to 4m as inv. / NF.
#2 scrambling asks to bid the better red suit
#3 3D could be based on spade support, 19+, but responder should assume, that it asks for a diamond
stopper.
#3i Stopper ask
#3ii 3S is not GF, it is highly inv. but NF, 3C showed min
You have 3 raises, the single raise (weak), the jump raise (GF), the raise via 2NT (inv)
This schema is the standard Lebensphl schema, but you change it.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[Adebisi]

Hi:) 1) via cuebid shows extras and slam inv+, 2) 44+ minors 3)FG 18 + 6+clubs 3)i i used to play good-bad 2NT promising either good min with 6+carder or unbalanced 4card supp u cant normally show like after 1C-1H-(2s)-2NT-3C-3H so here 2NT easy to play that 2NT just 12-14 6+ clubs and u could supp spades just without artificiality.