[han]

You hold xxxx Jxx AQx 10xx. Partner opens 1D, and LHO overcalls 2C. Partner's 1D opening shows at least 4 and usually 5 diamonds (any balanced hand would be opened with 1C or some number of notrump). What are your thoughts about pass, double or 2D?

If you decide to pass and partner reopens with a double, what would your call be then?

[inquiry]

I bid 2♦ dirctly over 2♣, so partner's reopening bid is immaterial to me.

I expect partner to reopen anytime he is short in ♣ and with the conditions you set forward, I would rather bid ♦ now, and have partner bid again iwth extra values than pass and have to decide how agressive to be when partner reopens. In addition, I would like partner to lead a diamond at trick one if we defend and he is on lead, or to swtich to a ♦ if we defend and I am on lead.

[the hog]

If partner's 1D opening shows 4+D, then I think 2D is a sensible and practical bid - raise with support. Otherwise I would pass.

[shanbari]

pass first round.

2D after double. spade is too weak to play facing partner's 3 card.

[flytoox]

2D, very important to tell pd i do havw support. The whole point of bid is to find a fit. Never hide it.

[Free]

In MP's on a funny day I might Dbl, in imps it's a clear 2♦ imo.

[han]

I passed at the table, but I like a direct 2D much better. We have only been playing 1D as 4+ recently, and this should have been one of the hands where it gave us an advantage.

[cf_John0]

Imo,7HCP,especially 6 @♦,can afford directly 2♦,even if ♦ could be 4-3 fit.