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Question on an auction

#1 User is offline   davesayc 

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Posted 2012-September-05, 12:05

playing SAYC

1 - (1)-p-(p)
1nt shows (HCP)...??
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#2 User is offline   wyman 

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Posted 2012-September-05, 12:40

18-19
"I think maybe so and so was caught cheating but maybe I don't have the names right". Sure, and I think maybe your mother .... Oh yeah, that was someone else maybe. -- kenberg

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#3 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-September-05, 12:45

Playing the Yellow Card is not relevant, here. Any natural system with a strong NT would be the same. Above the 1NT opening, below the 2NT opening.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#4 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2012-September-05, 13:36

Although 18-19 is "correct," from a definitional standpoint, I have often wondered as to the utility of that call. It comes up so rarely, and there are often solutons with that strong of a hand anyway, should 1NT mean something else.

For example, wouldn't it be nice for 1-(1M)-P-P-1NT to show something like a true club suit with the other major, rather than simply takeout? I mean, contrast (after 1-(1)-P-P-?) these two hands:

xx AKxx AQx J10xx

xx AKxx x AQJ10xx

Give partner Axx xxx xxxxx Kx...
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#5 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2012-September-05, 16:11

This 18-19 hands seems to come up a lot to me after this bidding and even more often after 1m- (pass) pass (some bid)

And in Kens examples I would X with the first and bid 2 with the second. Should work good enough. Or is it well enough?
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#6 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2012-September-06, 06:27

Best is 1NT two-way:

18-19 bal or
void in their suit, minimum values, can't stand a penalty pass

This treatment comes with a guarantee that partner will be able to work out which hand-type you have except against people who make psychic passes of overcalls.

But I guess it won't make it into the next SAYC update ...
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#7 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2012-September-06, 16:39

View PostCodo, on 2012-September-05, 16:11, said:

Should work good enough. Or is it well enough?


It is good enough and it should work well enough.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#8 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2012-September-11, 04:05

View Postdavesayc, on 2012-September-05, 12:05, said:

playing SAYC

1 - (1)-p-(p)
1nt shows (HCP)...??


1nt shows 18-19hcp with balanced hand and promise stopper.
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#9 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2012-September-11, 04:23

Perhaps an interesting question is what 1 - (1M) - P - (P); 1NT should mean in a limited opening system (Precision, Polish, etc).
(-: Zel :-)

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#10 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2012-September-11, 05:16

View PostZelandakh, on 2012-September-11, 04:23, said:

Perhaps an interesting question is what 1 - (1M) - P - (P); 1NT should mean in a limited opening system (Precision, Polish, etc).

In Polish, 1 could still be 17 points (and arguably the upper limit should be higher since 1-1-1[2di] is artificial so 18-20 hands with primarily diamonds can be awkward).

So I think that in Polish Club, 1NT could still be naturalish even though the 1 opening denies a balanced hand.

In Precision I think it should be 54, then you bid 2 with 45.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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