[mikl_plkcc]

Hand 1

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Hand 2

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Moreover, what should I bid if:
I have all outside aces and can count 12 tricks, therefore, wanting opener to bid 7NT if he has an 8-card suit;
I have one outside ace missing and can count 12 tricks, wanting to sign off at 6NT.

[Quartic]

I would pass both hands. Hopefully we can find a 9th trick somewhere.

I think a 5NT reply to 3NT forces 6NT and invites 7NT.
If you can just count 12 tricks with no chance of 13, just bid 6NT.

[gszes]

a game of % once the opening lead hits the table both defenders will know exactly how to defend

IMO

hand 1 will make around 22% of the time frinedly club lead and A onside or 8 card suit + heart.
PULL

hand 2 will make around 6% of the time 8 card suit + A with a nice friendly spade lead
PULL

you gambled and it didnt work this time save the passes for better opportunities.



standard here is

4n invites 6*
5n invites 7*
6n is to play

*a nice treatment here is if opener only has 7 cards they can show a 3
card suit at the level above the invite in case their p can ruff a round thus allowing
the partnership to reach a small or a rare grand in trumps (responder has 3 trumps
and AK tight in your 3 card suit)

If responder is using these invites properly you should have a safe 11 or 12 tricks in nt
off the top and if responder does not want to go any higher they merely sign off in 5/6 nt

[Phil]

Passing both hands initially is clear. 3N needs to get past one opponent and 4m needs to get past two.

By the way, a 3rd seat 3N should not have the same criteria as a 1/2nd seat 3N as far as outside stoppers is concerned.

If they x 3N, I'd probably pull to 4♦ on 1. The have 4♥, so -300 won't be a poor score, and it might be -100 on a club lead. On 2 I'd sit. They might make 4M and they might not, and we need just a little hiccup in defense to let it in, and we should be -1 at the worst.

[ggwhiz]

I would pass them both.

Whether making or down, 3nt or 4♦ could easily win the same number of tricks and the opps only have 4 gauranteed top winners on both of them.

[Statto]

Pass both. They won't always make but if not we should be able to count on p's running ♦ for 1 off. How bad can that be?

[Bbradley62]

I voted "both", but you might want to add "neither" as an option for people like gszes; otherwise, they can't register their opinion in the poll.

[FrancesHinden]

It depends what you mean by 'qualify'. I would pass both of them, because on the first both 3NT and 4D are likely to be off, and it might stop the opponents bidding their 4H contract; on the second because 3NT is as likely to make as 4D and it's game.

On your other questions:
If you can count 12 tricks but know there is an ace missing, bid 6NT.
I was taught that a 4NT response to 3NT asks for extra length in partner's suit (he bids 5C without, 5NT with 8 and 5 suit with a void)

[rmnka447]

I passed both hands. There is nothing that says partner doesn't hold an outside honor or two.

As far as I am aware, a 4 NT response to a gambling 3 NT asks if opener has an extra trick. The 3 NT bidder signs off in 5 of his suit without the extra trick, and bids 6 of his suit with one.

A 5 NT response aks if opener can play opposite a void in opener's suit. Opener bids 6 if not or bids 7 if the suit is good enough to have no losers opposite a void.

So, for your first question, after the 3NT opener, you bid 4 NT and follow up opener's 5 or 6 bid with 6 NT or 7 NT respectively.

For your second question, simply bid 6 NT. Even if 3 NT opener has an extra trick, the 6 NT bid should be passed as you had the opportunity to ask about it with a 4 NT bid and didn't.