han, on 2012-June-16, 08:23, said:
1. Maybe she (correctly) bid 2S because she had a strong hand, not in order to show anything but strength, or as an asking bid. I agree with you that 3H was not the best choice for her, but wouldn't it be better for you to bid 3NT? What do you think 2S followed by 3H shows, is it a slam try? If you agree that that is a rather small target after two NF bids, perhaps you agree that your partner is still looking for the best strain. Isn't it then obvious not to bid 4H with 10-fifth and a triple spade stopper?
2. Perhaps your partner should have figured this out with AQ10 of hearts. But of course you would have done better not to make ambiguous calls.
2. Perhaps your partner should have figured this out with AQ10 of hearts. But of course you would have done better not to make ambiguous calls.
1) I did mention she intended 2S as stop-asking. And what about something like void Axx Axx KQ10xxxx - that's not strong enough for X-then-bid, so start with 2C and when partner bids 2H you might envisage some kind of slam?
Still, I guess I could bid 3NT anyway, but to be honest I was playing partner to be the strong player I know her as, despite the splinter mix-up and her earlier not inviting with a 9-count over my 1NT overcall (yes, 10 tricks were cold). So when she doesn't bid 3NT herself despite me suggesting NT is a good place to play...
2) As I mentioned earlier in the thread I'd never before come across someone who, playing splinters, thinks 1S-4H is natural.
ahydra

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