Posted 2011-October-26, 15:30
I like Coelecanth's reasoning, except that 3♠ seems pusillanimous, and having bid only 3♠, it must be because he is going to hit what they bid. So either 5♦x, or 4♠x, *or* 4♥x by north on a known bad fit and two tricks. But it's only legal if it's legal.
If their agreement is that 3♦ is the majors, I want to know *exactly why* North passed. I'm not very likely to believe him, either. I also want to know if 3♦ = diamonds *or* majors is a legal agreement (I assume it is), and why, if North is going to bid like that, that he doesn't explain the agreement that way (or "majors, but partner forgets").
Maybe he decided to psych the 3♦ pass, knowing if it gets doubled that he can run to 3♠ hoping to screw them up (after all, 3♦-7 should be a great score; 3♦-8 if East only has one club is a terrific score, and even after doubling-and-running, it's going to be hard for them to find the diamond contract). But you don't get to play those games if:
- partner reacts to the explanation of 3♦
- you've seen partner forget this before
- you've ever done it before with this partner (I can not believe that partner would forget this one).
If their agreement is that 3♦ is natural, then MI, and 4♥+1 (I'm going to allow East to guess the trumps for one loser, then the sixth spade comes in). I'm still going to ask North why he passed, and whether he did what he needed to do with "MI corrected by explainer".
When I go to sea, don't fear for me, Fear For The Storm -- Birdie and the Swansong (tSCoSI)