[SimonFa]

I'm having a discussion with a pickup partner who didn't approve of my actions on this hand. As part of my learning I am interested to hear what members, especially A/E, think of my actions and what, if anything, I should have done differently.

W v R, IMPs (would it be different at MP?)

(P) P (P) 1♦
(P) ?

♠Q
♥KJT2
♦762
♣J9653

Partner's profile says simple SAC so I take that to mean SAYC.

What do you do?

What do you think about my reasoning and decision in the spoiler?

Spoiler

Partner could have as many as 19HCP so I wanted to keep the bidding alive. Furthermore, there's a chance partner could have a 4432 hand, but I think that's less likely.

Although I have 6HCP my Q♠ really might not be worth much, as partner later pointed out, unless he has a good Spade side suit of AKx. Worse still it looks odds on that partner is going to bid 1♠.

On the plus side I have 4 good Hearts and the Clubs will act as a stopper if we end up NT over partners expected Spade bid.

I really don't see a problem in bidding here so ...

(P) P (P) 1♦
(P) 1♥ (1♠) 2♥
(2♠) P (P) 2NT
(X) ?


Pass after 2♠ looked like a no brainer but what now?

Looks like partner has a good spade stopper, as I would expect, and prefers NT over Hearts. The must be invitational, surely? If it is then 2NT doubled is a good spot to be. Well I can't bid on and partner gets another bid so if he prefers to play in Hearts he can correct so I pass.

Sadly we went down 3 in 2NT.

As always, thanks in advance for you comments,

Simon

[BunnyGo]

1♥ is the only bid I would consider reasonable here. As a beginner, I'd've thought for a second about passing, but would not do so at MPs or IMPs or any other form of scoring.

After the auction in the spoiler, I'd bid 3♥ at MPs. I'm tempted to make a game try at IMPs. I'd probably just bid 3♥ though.

[neilkaz]

I'd quickly have found another pickup to play with. As for 1♥, I expect I'd have lots of company bidding it if my Q♠ were the deuce. One wonders what garbage pickup had to bid 2NT. It is not up to you to save pard from 2NTx as he should have a hand worthy of inviting you to 3NT or 4♥ (noting that you don't mention supX so perhaps he has only 3 ♥). If partner actually has his 2NT bid, the Q♠ should help solidify a 2nd stop and he could even be playing for OT's.

You bid perfectly. I look forward to seeing how much of an overbid pard's 2NT was ! .. neilkaz ..

EDIT.. oops I failed to see that pard bid 2♥ prior to 2NT and 2 is not invitational. I still pass 2NTx as I have only 4♥ and pard knows whether he has 3 or 4♥ and how well he stops ♠

[sasioc]

1♥ over 1♦ is automatic and I'd still respond 1♥ on this if the Q♠ was the deuce and the J♣ was low and not think it a particularly strange thing to do.

I'm slightly confused by p's bidding 2♥(which does not really invite me to bid on) and then 2nt (which looks strong). It feels like either he was meant to bid 2♠, 3♥ or 2NT the first time round or this is meant as some sort of scramble (given that x feels like pens, even in a pick-up partnership) so I'll try 3♣ on your hand and pass whatever p bids now (if anything).

[mck4711]

Bid of 1♥ just perfect. And also P after 2♠.

Lets think what p would like to tell you (if it is not a bold overbid):
First he showed with 2 ♥ a min-opening and 4-card support (with 3 he would/ could/ should have X). Now he pops up with 2NT?! To play 2NT after fit-confirmation in ♥ doesnt make sense.
IMO there is one thing he might have had on his mind: If he has something like 4432 or 3442 or 4441 and a max within the context of his min-hand, he wants to compete (at least) on level 3 (and is maybe hoping for more if you have a perfectly matching hand). But this thought still doesnt work for 2 reasons:
- In case you would have had more than minimum you would have acted differently after 2♠
- If he has any length in ♠ you are short in ♠, thats clear. If he has HCP in ♠ they are anyhow wasted. If he has nothing in ♠ why to tell the obvious. It just helps opps in case we are to defend against a ♠-contract.

Edit (I forgot the last sentence):
2NT therefore doesnt make sense at all. He described his minimum-opening with 2H. And thats it. Full stop.

[han]

Partner bid 2H, that's not invitational. So 2NT cannot be invitational either.

[Hanoi5]

1♥ is correct. 2NT by partner is weird. I might also pass it.

[the hog]

1H is clear. As partner has only raised to 2H, 2NT cannot be an invite. My guess is that you are not playing support Xs and pd only had 3 cards in H. The 2NT bid looks pretty weird to me anyway. I would bid 3H over the x and would certainly not be surprised to get doubled.

[mike777]

as other said 1h is clear.


I play any bid over 2nt is game force, I cannot stop in 3h so I pass 2nt.

[Free]

1♥ is obvious and doesn't need that many thought. Passing over 2♠ is also obvious, because you don't have extra's and 2 of your HCP have just been erased. Partner's 2NT bid is weird but it can't show any extra's after his 2♥ bid. For me, 2NT is a suggestion to play, since ♠Q apparently is worth something I'd just pass. If partner goes down, it means he bid 2NT with the wrong hand.

[gwnn]

after partner bid 2♥ he cannot try for game. he has only three possibilities in this auction (in the first approximation):

*defend 2♠ (with a pass)
*offer to defend 2♠ doubled (double)
*offer to play 3♥

However, the last part is too restrictive. For example, if he had bid 3♦ it's clear that he is giving us a choice between 3♦ and 3♥. The question is what are 2NT and 3♣ the offers for. 3♣ might be 1-4-4-4 and 2NT 1-4-5-3? Anyway I think he shows at least some interest to play in clubs, but not with a lot of clubs, and he can't have so many diamonds because he bid already 2♥ and did not bid 3♦ so I would bid 3♥.

obviously, however, partner does not have any of the above because I have only one spade!! so it's anybody's guess what you should do.

[P_Marlowe]

1H.

Passing 2NTx is should show a certain wilingness
to play 2NT.
Given the shortage, you prefer to play a suit contract.

With kind regards
Marlowe