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What do u respond to 1NT with this hand (Acol Weak NT 12-14)

#1 User is offline   badderzboy 

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Posted 2004-September-09, 12:03


This little hand come up with a group of friends (beginners Intermediates) playing 3 tables Aggregate
Playing Regular Acol with a weak NT 12-14 with 4NT Quantative, 4 Gerber (only time it counts) and 2 and just regular stayman...

Partner opens 1NT ( all NV) and RHO not suprisingly passes...

What do u bid 2 or 4NT or 4C?

You bid decide to bid 2 Stayman and like all good partner's they reply 2.

Should 4NT next be RKCB ask in Diamonds or quantative?

Also if you swap Hearts & clubs around in the hand and partner responds 2 instead what would you bid - how would you check for a spade fit?

How do you get to 6N scientifically after this if partner has more than a minimum?

Thanks in advance for your input as none of us could think of how to get there scientifically without just punting it?


#2 User is offline   sceptic 

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Posted 2004-September-09, 12:14

with that I hand opening weak nt you have 20 points and p has 12 min, so I bid 2 clubs stayman after the 2 diamond bid, I have no idea if this is correct, but I think 6nt is the only bid as 4nt may be passed out by your p and you have a min of 32 between you.

Thats about as scientific as I can be on that

#3 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2004-September-09, 12:43

I start with 2 to find my Major fit first. When we don't have one, we go for NT. How many? 4, 5, 6? That depends imo. Theoreticly we need 33-34 HCP, so if partner has at least 13 we reach that 33.

Imo the bidding 1NT-2;2-4NT is quantitative. 2 denies a 4 card M, but it doesn't say anything about itself, so why should we consider as real? :D

If you don't have any way to find out about a 5-3 fit in , then I would just bid 5NT, asking to bid 6NT with just a little bit more than minimum.
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#4 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2004-September-09, 17:39

ooooooooo tailor made for forcing 2D :D ... free and i would find out before 3nt the exact distribution... then the controls.. that'd be all either would need... given the 2C bid though, i'm bidding 6NT after 2D
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#5 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2004-September-09, 18:40

2C and after 2D 4C gerber. You could just bash 6N - how unlucky would it be that the 8 points that are missing are the 2 bullets?
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.

#6 User is offline   laughter 

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Posted 2004-September-10, 01:19

1NT-2C; 2 any-4NT is defined as natural quantatitive by most expert partnerships.
Having found a trump fit, you first have to agree trump and then ask about keycards later.
How to agree trumps and maintain the force?
The easiest way is to play 3OM as artificial fit showing (of coz with slam interest) as you can't have a strong hand with 5+OM (start with Jacoby Transfer).
This agreement is the basic tool to effective slam bidding.
Regarding the actual hand, starting with Stayman to locate 4-4 fit, having found one, you can directly bid slam (no, you can't miss 2 aces, as an aceless 12 should be downgraded and not enough for opening). Just to play safe, you may try the approach mentioned above (set trump and ask later).
If you only have 4S and slam values while opener replies in H, you may try the toy named 5NT pick-a-slam, showing a hand good enough for small slam and ask opener to pick the right one.
Just for your information, 5NT in standard NT sequences traditionally suggest enough values for small slam and invites a grand. Thus:
1NT-5NT is NOT a stronger invitation than 4NT. Rather, it forces to 6NT and suggests 7 when opener is maximum. However, this usage is rare and the pick-a-slam meaning is much more important, imo.
You have to agree with your partner what 5NT means, of coz.
Happy bridging and may the force be with you!

#7 User is offline   xx1943 

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Posted 2004-September-10, 02:33

Hi Steve,

1) Stayman for sure
2) 4NT quantitative imo


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