[InTime]

---

I opened 1♣ here with the intention to rebid 1NT.
After the 1♠ and double, what is my best rebid now?
Regards

[Hairy_Scot]

2♠ asking for stopper.
I would assume pard has the red suits covered.

[655321]

1NT. If you would prefer to have a certain spade stopper, Qx is a very good holding to declare from anyway.

[mtvesuvius]

Easy 1N. Qx is a great holding to have when playing NT from your side. As a side note, I would rebid 1N on hands such as:

---

as well as

---

Qx is just an added bonus.

[mich-b]

1NT.
If rebidding 1NT without a full stopper makes you uncomfortable , you should have anticipated this problem and opened 1♦ planning to rebid 2♣ if they bid your stopperless suit.

[the hog]

The same as you were going to bid - 1NT

[Yu18772]

1NT, but this is why some open 1♦ on 4:4 in minors and lack of stopper in the majors

[InTime]

Thanks for all the replies. Another question I want to ask . . . what does 2♦ here means after a negative double . . . does it constitutes a reverse? I have heard somewhere that you are not reversing here with 2♦after a negative double? The point is actually is 2♦ forcing or not? . . . and if 2♦ is not forcing, must you then bid 3♦ to force?
Regards

[InTime]

mtvesuvius, on 2010-October-29, 00:27, said:

Easy 1N. Qx is a great holding to have when playing NT from your side. As a side note, I would rebid 1N on hands such as:

---

as well as

---

Qx is just an added bonus.

What you are saying here is that the 1NT rebid is just a shape showing bid and it does not necessarily say that your hand has a stopper or not. If partner wants to know, he can still inquire via 2♠?
Regards

[kgr]

Yu18772, on 2010-October-29, 01:58, said:

1NT, but this is why some open 1♦ on 4:4 in minors and lack of stopper in the majors

I have agreement with my partner that:
- 2♦ would be a reverse (partner only promising ♥)
- We open 1♦ iso 1♣ with 4-4 minors, after we had:
I opened 1♣ with a similar hand (but ♠xx); LHO did bid 2♠ and partner had a minimal take out DBL. I had to bid 3♣ and played it for 4 vulnerable down tricks while we had a ♦-fit.

[pooltuna]

655321, on 2010-October-28, 23:57, said:

1NT. If you would prefer to have a certain spade stopper, Qx is a very good holding to declare from anyway.

This is probably your best choice. Next would be 2♥. 2♠ is just insane IMO as it shows much more values than I hold. Finally you could push the "undo" button and if the opps agree change your call to 1♦ which will allow you to make a 2♣ call

[655321]

InTime, on 2010-October-29, 03:09, said:

Thanks for all the replies. Another question I want to ask . . . what does 2♦ here means after a negative double . . . does it constitutes a reverse? I have heard somewhere that you are not reversing here with 2♦after a negative double? The point is actually is 2♦ forcing or not? . . . and if 2♦ is not forcing, must you then bid 3♦ to force?
Regards

http://www.bridgebas...-many-controls/

[mtvesuvius]

InTime, on 2010-October-29, 03:18, said:

What you are saying here is that the 1NT rebid is just a shape showing bid and it does not necessarily say that your hand has a stopper or not. If partner wants to know, he can still inquire via 2♠?
Regards

Usually yes, it solves many other rebid problems.

[inquiry]

1NT... and if you just can't stand that, 2♦'s, but 1NT is clearly the correct bid.

[bucky]

Hairy_Scot, on 2010-October-28, 23:26, said:

2♠ asking for stopper.
I would assume pard has the red suits covered.

Are you being sarcastic or what?

[bucky]

InTime, on 2010-October-29, 03:09, said:

Thanks for all the replies. Another question I want to ask . . . what does 2♦ here means after a negative double . . . does it constitutes a reverse? I have heard somewhere that you are not reversing here with 2♦after a negative double? The point is actually is 2♦ forcing or not? . . . and if 2♦ is not forcing, must you then bid 3♦ to force?
Regards

The opinions indeed vary, even in bridge literature. I could be wrong, but I think the mainstream today is that the negative double only promises the other major (hearts in this case) but not the other minor suit (diamonds). Therefore you need extra value to bid 2♦. I don't know whether 2♦ must be absolutely forcing, after all you have the cuebid available for unconditional force. But I do prefer 2♦ to be forcing one round, and not to get 2♠ cuebid overloaded.

[Zelandakh]

InTime, on 2010-October-29, 03:09, said:

Thanks for all the replies. Another question I want to ask . . . what does 2♦ here means after a negative double . . . does it constitutes a reverse? I have heard somewhere that you are not reversing here with 2♦after a negative double? The point is actually is 2♦ forcing or not? . . . and if 2♦ is not forcing, must you then bid 3♦ to force?
Regards

Think of partner's negative double as a (slightly restricted) 1H response. Everything else flows logically from that except that you also have a cue bid available as a general force. So 2D should be a reverse.