[CSGibson]

Basically, you have shown a good 16 to 17 HCP, denied 4 card majors, and indicated that you can play NT opposite a 4-4-4-1. Partner has shows a slam invitational 4-4-4-1 hand.

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It's matchpoints, what would you do?

[NickRW]

Not really sure that I follow your apparently artificial auction - I assume that partner's stiff is a club. If so, apart from a couple of tens, what have I got that I haven't shown for 6N and if you think we belong in a diamond slam I have the ♣K that isn't going to be pulling much weight and neither of us have a ninth trump. But since I don't 100% follow your auction what do I really know?!

[mikeh]

It evaluates as a good hand for 4N

Make my clubs AJ10x and I would presumably have so far bid more or less as above, and now I'd have an extra 2 hcp in suits where they do more than give me one pitch. Colour me excited then: not now. 6♦ may make, but I'm not bidding it.

AJxx AQxx KJxx x is a sensible hand for him: opposite Qxx Kx AQxx AJ10x we'd want to be in slam; opposite this hand, we don't. QED.

[gnasher]

I'd bid 6♦.

I have four reasonable diamonds and a ruffing value, neither of which was suggested by 3NT. My controls are good. 13 of my points are pulling their weight, which is a lot better than it might have been. Even ♣K has some value, because it reduces the number of cards I have to ruff.

It's actually worth considering a grand-slam try - Axxx AQJx KQxx x isn't impossible. That's an perfect maximum, however, and anyway there's no room for exploration.

[mtvesuvius]

It's close between pass and 6♦. I think I would bid 6♦, I have Kx♥ which is very valuable, hopefully we can score 2♣, 2♥, 3♠ and 6♦ in 6♦... Although I may be a bit optimistic.

[Phil]

Partner sounds like 4441 with a 14-15 count since he already knows I'm at the top half of my range. I would also think partner has the option of trotting out 4♦ with four real good diamonds, but that did not happen. Accordingly, I do not think we have a robust fit in diamonds.

AKTx AQxx Qxxx x is about the best I can hope for, and there is not a wasted Jack anywhere. Still, slam looks to be marginally better than 50%, although the diamond pips will make a big difference.

Since I would think partner can have worse hands I will pass.

[gnasher]

mikeh, on 2010-October-28, 13:33, said:

AJxx AQxx KJxx x is a sensible hand for him: opposite Qxx Kx AQxx AJ10x we'd want to be in slam; opposite this hand, we don't. QED.

AJxx AQxx KJxx x is about the worst he can have, and 6♦ is still about 50%. In fact, it's probably better than that, because the auction might induce them to lead a trump.

[kenrexford]

Let's give partner a nice hand.

♠AKxx ♥Axxx ♦KQxx ♣x

That's a 16-count. Opposite that hand, a 3-2 diamond split would mean two clubs, three spades, two hearts, and four diamonds for 11 easy tricks. One ruff means 12.

Let's get rid of the diamond Queen, a 14-HCP hand. Now, we play again for a 3-2 diamond split. We end up with the same 7 tricks outside, plus two top diamonds, for 9 tricks. Because we can ruff two clubs on dummy and two hearts in hand, that's 13 tricks, minus one for whenever the opponent decides to ruff in. 12 tricks, again.

What about getting rif od the spade King and replacing it with a Jack? On a 3-2 diamond split, we end up with 4 diamonds, two top clubs, and two top hearts, for 8 tricks. We get a ninth with a ruff. If AJxx opposite Qxx plays for 3 tricks (and we don't know what the pips are), we have an easy 12, and something in clubs or hearts might produce a squeezy 12 also.

So, I think the slam is good.

What to bid, though? After this sequence, any bid past 4NT must agree diamonds. This seems easy. So, cuebids seem right. I'd start with a 5♣ cue, to show Ace or Ace-King in clubs (probably should be Ace-King), in case partner happens to have the stiff Queen, which would also be a nice card. What happens next...

[CSGibson]

Phil, on 2010-October-28, 13:53, said:

I would also think partner has the option of trotting out 4♦ with four real good diamonds,

4♦ would suggest a 4=4=5=0 hand in our system

[mfa1010]

6♦. What gnasher and ken said.

[Cascade]

Partner expects some club wastage, knows we have a maximum and makes a slam try.

Our wastage AK is at least two tricks, we have a four card suit to offer and a ruffing value of our own.

It is clear to cooperate there is nothing bad about our hand that partner did not already know.

[mike777]

6d but very close to pass 4nt...veryclose.

[Phil]

Thinking about this more, perhaps 5♣ should be Last Train for a diamond slam over 4N.

[655321]

I am in the 6♦ camp.

If 6♦ will only make around 50% of the time passing looks good because making enough overtricks in 3NT will rarely score badly, but I hope that 6♦ will make much more often than that.

[CSGibson]

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Here were the actual two hands. 6♦ is very good on this layout, as you can see.

[Zelandakh]

CSGibson, on 2010-October-28, 16:29, said:

4♦ would suggest a 4=4=5=0 hand in our system

What would 4C have been then? Logically this should be 4441 and slam interest, no?

[Fluffy]

I am late to the post, but I just wanna point that ♠Qxx ♥Kx is very different from ♠Kxx ♥Qx, our cards are all working except ♣10, not bidding 6♦ with this hands is IMO a big judgement error, or shows no trust on partner's judgement.

[USViking]

CSGibson, on 2010-October-28, 13:10, said:

Basically, you have shown a good 16 to 17 HCP, denied 4 card majors, and indicated that you can play NT opposite a 4-4-4-1. Partner has shows a slam invitational 4-4-4-1 hand.

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It's matchpoints, what would you do?

If partner thinks we have a shot a slam after my 1NT
I will assume he knows what he is doing and go along.

I have several questions about the auction, though
(sorry if answers are clear to better players-
I am intermediate skill level at best):

(1) How has partner indicated 4441 shape?

(2) Could specific suit lenghts be other than 4441,
for example 4144?

(3) If the answer to (2) is "Yes" how do you know
which are partner's 4-card suits?

(4) If 2 Spades and 3 Diamonds indicate 4-card suits
then how can you tell whether Hearts or Clubs is the
third 4-card suit?

(5) What does 2 Spades mean? I do not see how it can be
cuebid of Ace given the next bid:

(6) What does 2 Diamonds mean? It cannot be cuebid of Ace.

(7) What does 3 Hearts mean? If it means 1st or 2nd round
control I guess that might also explain the 2S and 2D bids.

(8) What does 3 Spades mean?

[TWO4BRIDGE]

CSGibson, on 2010-October-29, 02:44, said:

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Here were the actual two hands. 6♦ is very good on this layout, as you can see.

There is a "Distribution Ask" system that works well Responder holding a 4441 GF hand. It is also used in place of Stayman auction ( with a GF Responder )... provided Opener does NOT have a 5 card Major :

South................... North
1NT...................... - 2S!( GF, asks for distribution )
3C!(4c + 1 more)... - 3D!( asks for the other 4 carder )
..3H! ( 4h )
..3S! ( 4s )
.3NT!( 4d )............ - 4D! ( Minorwood; just in case off 2 key cards )

4NT(3rd step=2-dQ).. - 6D

[gnasher]

USViking, on 2010-October-30, 10:10, said:

I have several questions about the auction

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