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Game-forcing?

#1 User is offline   bd71 

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Posted 2010-October-11, 07:42

Matchpoints if it matters. Your partner opens, and bidding goes...

1C-(1H)-1N-(P)
2S-(P)

Are we now in a game-forcing auction? If you have say a 3442 hand with 9-10 points (so you want to play in at least 3N), can you bid 2N and safely believe that pd won't pass, or do you need to jump to 3N?

This stems from a hand where my pd opened 1C with 55 in the blacks (we had never discussed, and 1C rather than 1S surprised me...but that's an issue for another day or another post), and I later jumped to 3N (thinking that 2N was passable) and we missed the much better 4S game.
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#2 User is offline   spotlight7 

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Posted 2010-October-11, 08:57

Hi:

A reverse is not game forcing. A reverse often shows 15+ on bbo and 17+ in more reasonable parts of the bridge playing world.

Most good players use 2NT* or a bid of the 4th suit(whichever is lower) to allow partner to finish bidding out his hand.

In reply to a 'reverse', direct bids at the 3 level show game forcing values(your values plus whatever is shown by the 'reverse.')

I do not like the style of opening 1C with 5-5 blacks and this example does not change my mind.

Regards,
Robert
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#3 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2010-October-11, 09:02

I understand opener's reverse as a one round force, and promising more cards in the first bid buit. I would expect this with an unknown pickup partner.
Life is long and beautiful, if bad things happen, good things will follow.
-gwnn
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#4 User is offline   bd71 

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Posted 2010-October-11, 09:52

spotlight7, on Oct 11 2010, 09:57 AM, said:

A reverse is not game forcing. 

Understood, but not quite germane to this specific question as more has happened here than a simple reverse.

The question is whether an opening hand strong enough for a reverse COMBINED WITH a responding hand strong enough to bid 1N over an overcall demands a game-forcing auction.
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#5 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2010-October-11, 11:04

Definitely 2NT should not be passable. Either opener has extra high card strength for the reverse or he has extra shape, and in either case he will take a third bid.

I'm not sure whether 3 by opener over 2NT would be passable. The 2NT bid is usually a warning/weakness signal. It might be reasonable to pass out 3 if opener has a shapely 15-16 and responder has a misfit 7-8 (for example).

However, with 3 card spade support and a good hand I don't see why you would want to bid 2NT. Maybe it would be better to raise to 3; you've already denied 4 spades by failing to make a negative double so this raise should tend to show 3-card support and would be game-forcing.
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#6 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2010-October-11, 12:34

Hi,

Not game forcing, it could even be argued, that it may make sense to
play 2S as NF, showing add. values, but NF.
Playing 2S as NF is certainly an (extreme) minority proposition.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#7 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2010-October-11, 14:34

bd71, on Oct 11 2010, 08:42 AM, said:

Matchpoints if it matters.  Your partner opens, and bidding goes...

1C-(1H)-1N-(P)
2S-(P)

Are we now in a game-forcing auction?  If you have say a 3442 hand with 9-10 points (so you want to play in at least 3N), can you bid 2N and safely believe that pd won't pass, or do you need to jump to 3N?

This stems from a hand where my pd opened 1C with 55 in the blacks (we had never discussed, and 1C rather than 1S surprised me...but that's an issue for another day or another post), and I later jumped to 3N (thinking that 2N was passable) and we missed the much better 4S game.

2s promises a rebid.....


2nt by responder will not promise a rebid.

with many 9-10 pt hands I will not rebid 2nt I will find someother bid here to show extras
-----------

with almost all 5-5 hands I start with 1s but that is another issue. :)
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