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Partner Jumps To Game Over My 1N! 1H 1N 4H 6H, Sequence Must Be Wrong?

#1 User is offline   gurgistan 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 14:00

Scoring: IMP

In an uncontested auction: Partner is first seat opener with 1. I bid 1N intending to rebid 3 unless Partner shows extra values. Partner bids 4. I think if he can bid 4 without knowing how many I have, or that I have two Aces then a small slam looks to be on. I bid 6.

Questions: Is Partners 4 rebid wrong? Is my reasoning correct for putting us in the slam?

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#2 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 14:11

4 is not right. he should bid 3D. his hearts are not self-sufficient.

Your 6 is very bad, you should just cue or pass, depending what 4 means.

For some people 4 means just that they have 7+ hearts but a little more defensive values than a 4 opening, for others it shows a powerhouse.

If you're in the first group, you should pass.

If you're in the second, you should cue.

edited later, N should bid 3.
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#3 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 14:30

Your partner was supposed to jump-shift. Rebidding 4M is supposed to be more gambling, 7 or 8+M, too strong to open 4. GF hands based more on HCP are supposed to jump-shift into side suit or fragment.

However, many beginners don't know this, or were maybe taught simplified system to just rebid game with long suit and game values, to avoid disasters playing with other beginners, getting to the game contract in long suit, at the cost of missing an occasional slam. So in a BBO pickup game you are going to be in a guess.
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#4 User is offline   gurgistan 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 15:05

7 seven tables (including us) found 6, did we just all over bid it or can the small slam be found with an accurate bidding sequence and if so what is it?

One table went 2 3 3 4 4 6. If nothing else the 2 opener appears to be technically correct to me as it is a three-loser hand.
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#5 User is offline   ONEferBRID 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 15:15

I always like to show off my treatment for the SJS over 1NTF! :

♠ A
♥ 765
♦ J752
♣ AJ862

♠ K3
♥ AKQ432
♦ KQ84
♣ Q

1H - 1NTF!
3D - 3H! ( relay to 3S! )
3S! - 4D! ( 4+d AND 3h, sweet ! )
??
South can use either 4S! ( RKC for Diam ) or 4NT ( RKC for Hts ) on this one.

The reply will be 2 - trump Q.

Final contract: 6H
Don Stenmark ( TWOferBRIDGE )
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#6 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 15:31

Your partner's 4 is ok, though a jump shift to 3 followed by 4 would be better. I would have cue bid 4 with your hand because there could be two diamond losers but a direct jump to 6 is ok as well because the times you lose the first two diamonds will be partly outweighed by the times they don't lead a diamond because you didn't help them by pinpointing your weakness.
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#7 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 15:44

nigel_k, on Aug 4 2010, 04:31 PM, said:

Your partner's 4 is ok, though a jump shift to 3 followed by 4 would be better. I would have cue bid 4 with your hand because there could be two diamond losers but a direct jump to 6 is ok as well because the times you lose the first two diamonds will be partly outweighed by the times they don't lead a diamond because you didn't help them by pinpointing your weakness.

this gets my vote
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George Bernard Shaw
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#8 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 15:44

Partner's 4 is not the best call with 4 and a GF hand. He should JS to 3 as maybe you acually belong in (perhaps slam) and noting his aren't completely solid and you could show up with a stiff.

After his 4 I prefer a 4 cue to a blast to 6 as perhaps partner's minor suit kings are interchanged or perhaps he has has a bit less for 4 and now he can get out in 5. Of course blasting can leave the opps more in the dark as to what to lead, but that doesn't mean you'll always take 12 tricks anyhow if off two losers.

But surely, partner should JS to 3
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#9 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 16:40

gurgistan, on Aug 4 2010, 09:05 PM, said:

If nothing else the 2 opener appears to be technically correct to me as it is a three-loser hand.

It's a good hand but not that good, in my little opinion. Also it is a much better idea to bid both your suits in a timely fashion, you open

1H and then bid
3D

Then you promise 17-20 points with 5+H and 4+D, isn't that nice? Isn't that nicer than

2C-2D
2H-2S
3D

which shows that you have 21+ with 5 4 or better and this is the best case scenario!! The best case scenario is that you have overbid your hand by an Ace ugh. So what else can happen?

What if your partner doesn't like you and bids

2S
2N
3C
?

What then?
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#10 User is offline   gurgistan 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 16:51

gwnn, on Aug 4 2010, 05:40 PM, said:

gurgistan, on Aug 4 2010, 09:05 PM, said:

If nothing else the 2 opener appears to be technically correct to me as it is a three-loser hand.

It's a good hand but not that good, in my little opinion. Also it is a much better idea to bid both your suits in a timely fashion, you open

1H and then bid
3D

Then you promise 17-20 points with 5+H and 4+D, isn't that nice? Isn't that nicer than

2C-2D
2H-2S
3D

which shows that you have 21+ with 5 4 or better and this is the best case scenario!! The best case scenario is that you have overbid your hand by an Ace ugh. So what else can happen?

What if your partner doesn't like you and bids

2S
2N
3C
?

What then?

gwnn, thank you for pointing this out.
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#11 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2010-August-04, 17:43

I AM A PSYCHOPATH BUT MIKEH IS GIVING ME THE HELP I NEED
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#12 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2010-August-05, 02:14

Without agreements and standard bidding, 1H-1NT-4H is long good hearts and a powerhouse just short of 2C opener; also denies a singleton since if opener is insisting on 4H, he should describe his hand on the way, in case the responder is not prepared to settle in game. I see nothing wrong in the auction otherwise and 4H is a sensible way to avoid misunderstandings and drive to the most likely contract.
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