On more upside: If you invite with 2♠ you do not need other quantitative bids any more- so 4 NT and 5 NT can be used for a different purpose. (Okay I did not define 5 NT in my reg. partnership, but it would be possible..)
clubs or invite
#21
Posted 2010-July-20, 04:07
Kind Regards
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#22
Posted 2010-July-20, 13:10
We tie two more things into the 2♠ ask:
Over 3♣ we can show all 4441's below 3nt
3♦ Red suit singleton
3 ♥ Short spades
3♠ Short clubs
Also, Responder can now play 4 of a major from his side, if desired.
Danny
Over 3♣ we can show all 4441's below 3nt
3♦ Red suit singleton
3 ♥ Short spades
3♠ Short clubs
Also, Responder can now play 4 of a major from his side, if desired.
Danny
#23
Posted 2010-July-20, 13:24
My reg p and I have been playing a version of this for several years and been happy with our results.
1NT-2S: flat invitation, or HHxxxx in either minor, or a minor one-suiter looking for slam.
Opener's rebid:
2NT: minimum
......3C: in fact I have HHxxxx in clubs and out
......3D: in fact I have HHxxxx in diamonds and out
......3H: in fact I have a club slam try
......3S: in fact I have a diamond slam try
3C: maximum for NT, but no club honour.
Responder passes with a club invite, bids 3NT with a NT invite or a club slam hand that needed a filling honour in clubs. 3D = in fact I have HHxxxx in diamonds.
3D: maximum for NT, a club honour, but no diamond honour.
Responder passes a diamond invite, bids 3NT with a balanced or club invite.
3H or higher: max, and an honour in both minors, and a cuebid in this suit.
It's not necessarily "better than" 2-under transfers, just a different approach, to put the invites into one bid, and the the weak hands into another (1NT-2NT=bust in clubs, or various strong hands.) If I do play 2-under transfers, I have no balanced NT invitation, and just choose between 1 and 3. I absolutely hate people who go through 2C without a 4-card major just so they can tell me they have an ugly 9 count.
1NT-2S: flat invitation, or HHxxxx in either minor, or a minor one-suiter looking for slam.
Opener's rebid:
2NT: minimum
......3C: in fact I have HHxxxx in clubs and out
......3D: in fact I have HHxxxx in diamonds and out
......3H: in fact I have a club slam try
......3S: in fact I have a diamond slam try
3C: maximum for NT, but no club honour.
Responder passes with a club invite, bids 3NT with a NT invite or a club slam hand that needed a filling honour in clubs. 3D = in fact I have HHxxxx in diamonds.
3D: maximum for NT, a club honour, but no diamond honour.
Responder passes a diamond invite, bids 3NT with a balanced or club invite.
3H or higher: max, and an honour in both minors, and a cuebid in this suit.
It's not necessarily "better than" 2-under transfers, just a different approach, to put the invites into one bid, and the the weak hands into another (1NT-2NT=bust in clubs, or various strong hands.) If I do play 2-under transfers, I have no balanced NT invitation, and just choose between 1 and 3. I absolutely hate people who go through 2C without a 4-card major just so they can tell me they have an ugly 9 count.
#24
Posted 2010-July-20, 13:31
nigel_k, on Jul 20 2010, 04:25 AM, said:
Maybe there is. I was thinking of hands with something like Hx(x) in clubs and slow but solid stoppers in the other suits. This would be quite good if the invite is for 3NT but not for slam. I'd tend to think that if responder makes a slam try after transferring then opener needs to re-evaluate.
The most likely hand to accept has a club honour and fast tricks on the side. It's rare to have a double stop in every suit, and if they lead your singly-stopped suit your slow winners in the other suits will be no use.
Suppose that responder has xx xxx xx AQxxxx. Kxx KJ10x KQJ Kx is probably down on a spade lead, but Axx Axx Ax Kx has nine winners.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
#25
Posted 2010-July-22, 00:52
helene_t, on Jul 19 2010, 10:28 AM, said:
pooltuna, on Jul 19 2010, 04:21 PM, said:
jdonn, on Jul 19 2010, 10:07 AM, said:
Opener bids 2NT with a min and 3♣ with a max. He can't super accept specifically for clubs any more but at least he has shown min or max in general.
This strikes me as backwards, i.e. it might be more advantageous to use 2NT as a max
huh? If responder has 8 points without club length, he would be stuck when opener bids 3♣.
So it's better to play 2NT as showing minimum, then responder can pass 2NT.
Clearly right. Supporting the minor with a fit and bidding the in-between step without a fit is also consistent with a 2NT response (transfer to diamonds) that might include weak 2suiters with both minors: opener rebids 3♦ with a diamond fit and 3♣ otherwise, allowing responder to pass when holding both clubs and diamonds in a weak hand.
Selling is the second oldest profession, often confused with the first.
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