[fuburules3]

Consider the following sequence at IMPS. Playing standardish 2/1 without strong agreements.

1♠ P 2♣ P
2♠ P 3♣ P
3♦ P 4♦ P
?

My question is what has opener showed so far and what his rebids mean. My confusion is what 3♦ shows (a diamond stopper or a 4 card diamond suit and 6 spades). If opener rebids 4♠ should that be taken as a cue bid or an attempt to play a game in spades?

[mikeh]

Some popular versions of 2/1 make the 3♣ rebid non-forcing, and that would have some impact on the sequence. But let's assume that 2♣ established a gf.

In traditional standard bidding, for opener to rebid 2♠ then bid diamonds, would suggest a weak 6-4, with stronger 6-4 hands bidding 2D then rebidding spades.

2/1 takes away some of the need for this level of distinguishing hand types over 2♣ and I think that the majority of players would expect that opener would bid 2♦ with most 6-4 hands, and so opener's sequence suggests that he was probing for 3N when he bid 3♦. He might hold AQJxxx xx AQx xx as one example...how else can he bid this hand?


Responder's 4♦ is thus a very rare bid. He could have shown both minors, with longer clubs, by bidding 3♦ over 2♠. By emphasizing clubs, then raising diamonds, I'd play him for at least a 2 card discrepancy and maybe 3. So with x x KJxx AKJxxxx, how else is he to bid this hand?

If opener rebids 4♠, that is absolutely an attempt to play there: AQJ109x xx AQx xx opposite my suggested hand...where else do you want to play? Diamonds needs a good diamond break after a heart lead and continuation, while spades should play well even with a poor trump break.