Yesterday I was lucky enough to be awake by the time Luis was doing his BIL clas on slam bidding, and it was a great one ! (ty again Luis- and Rado too
So here is the q.
I held the following hand:
♠Kxxx
♥xx
♦AKQJxx
♣x
Partner opens 1♠ and i decide to bid 2♦ rather than splintering or using Jacoby 2NT (actually there were very useful comments also on this kind of choice but it is not the subject of this post).
1♠:2♦
2NT:3♠
4♣:4♦
4♥:?
Both 4C and 4D are mixed cuebids.
The question here is the meaning of the 4H bid.
Since the class was a group class, there was not the chance to discuss this better so I still have doubts on this, hence I post them here...
Basically, it was said in the class that after 4H I should take over and bid 4NT RKCB, because H shows a H stopper.
I objected that, since we have shown control inn the minors and miss only H control, AND opener still shows slam interest, it sounded to me that 4H was more ASKING for H stopper.
If opener had a slam going hand AND H control, he may bid RKCB himself, knowing all suits are stopped.
Due to the collective nature of the class, there was not the time to discuss this more thouroghly, but the reply to this comment was that 4H is similar to "Last Train" here, opener is still undecided. (This Last train reference was made very quickly in private chat, since we needed to move on to the following board; this means I may have misunderstod some part of this explanation because of english language).
Now, my doubt after the "Last train" point is that Last Train does not deny NOR promise anything in the Last Train suit (hearts here): so if 4H shows a hand that wants to keep the bidding open but lacks something, I still do not know whether he has a H control. (The "Lackwood" convention would help here).
And If I do not know whether he has a H control, I cannot bid RKCB.
Thanks again to all, these BIL lessons are great.

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