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juniors hand

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 09:41

xx
xxxx
xxx
Kxxx

unfavourable at imps partner opens and it goes

1-p-p-2
x-xx-?

should pass be to play? what do you do?
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#2 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 10:07

Partner did not open 2C so we have inadequate values to sit 2CXX. He does have a good hand but he did not rebid diamonds or 1NT. Admittedly this is a supermax for passing partner's opening bid but still not enough to defend 2CXX. My RHO has values and maybe even club support or at least tolerance, his XX was for business.

Pass would IMO say I don't care where partner runs. This hand should bid 1H.
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#3 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 10:18

Bidding 1 would be a great idea, but I doubt the opps will allow it.

Pass is NOT to play. I would bid 2, as partner might be 4441. If I had diamond tolerance and 4 spades I would pass and correct partner's 2 pull to 2.
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#4 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 10:34

Pass is definitely to play. We've been over this before.

I would bid 2.
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#5 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 10:40

Passing the redouble to play right there is a legitimate agreement but if undiscussed it probably shouldn't apply. Too hard on the nerves at imps.

I would bid 2h regardless and smoothly. What kind of opps are going to double that at imps? Besides, if partner has a big spade - diamond or heart - diamond hand or some such, we might steal from them.
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#6 User is offline   andy_h 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 11:05

I would bid 2
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#7 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 13:36

Passing is definitely to play in all negative double auctions (aka where you could have Xed before but it would have been negative). I know some of these are debatable but I don't think those should be.

Now 2D is obvious. I don't even understand 2H.
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#8 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 14:23

Quote

Now 2D is obvious. I don't even understand 2H.


Surely debatable but if the re-doubler has serious intent after having passed 1 diamond does it not indicate a diamond stack? Maybe a moderate stack but if pard is 4-4 in the majors, diamonds could be the wrong contract.

How do you feel if 2d gets passed back around and rho hits it?
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#9 User is offline   jjbrr 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 14:43

ggwhiz, on May 12 2010, 02:23 PM, said:

How do you feel if 2d gets passed back around and rho hits it?

completely standard
OK
bed
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#10 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2010-May-12, 15:02

Jlall, on May 12 2010, 02:36 PM, said:

Passing is definitely to play in all negative double auctions (aka where you could have Xed before but it would have been negative). I know some of these are debatable but I don't think those should be.

Now 2D is obvious. I don't even understand 2H.

Obv I misread the auction and thought it was 1D 2C p p X XX since this is not a negative X auction...wd.

I don't know if pass is to play here or not. I would still start with 2D.
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#11 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-May-15, 08:30

partner had 4351 and 18 or 19, I know he had KQT of hearts and AKJTx of diamonds. The player at the table bid 2H down 1 and I asked people if 2D (which makes 9 tricks i think) was maybe better but almost everyone agreed with 2h.
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#12 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2010-May-15, 12:30

I think 2 is clear. I don't think partner can have a balanced 19 count for his double, so except when he is 4=4=4=1 exactly diamonds will be an 8-card fit. There are several possible shapes where hearts could be a 7-card fit (4351, 4360, 3361) so even though some of them might bid 2 they do seem more likely.
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