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precision 1D transfers

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-April-28, 03:05

why don't people play transfers over
1D-(2C)-?
1D-(3C)-?
where 1D did not show 4?
It seems immensely superior to just natural.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
      George Carlin
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#2 User is offline   olien 

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Posted 2010-April-28, 08:52

I don't know why more people don't, but meckstroth-rodwell do. I also with with my partners in a scheme as follows over 1-(2):

2=5+ constructive+ values
2=5+ constructive+ values
2=INV+ raise
2N=natural INV
3=5/5+ majors GF
3=natural <INV
3M=6+M, good suit, GF

Continuations are pretty common-sense.
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#3 User is offline   mikegill 

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Posted 2010-April-28, 11:20

Never thought about 1 - 3 but we also do over 1 - (2) as well as (1) - 2 actually. We play 1 as 0+ so we play 3 here as a raise with its own diamond suit, and 3 directly is a hand that would raise 1 to 3 in std. Usually unless you have very short clubs yourself it's a safe bet opener has some diamonds when they bid 2. Agree that this approach seems decidedly superior.
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#4 User is offline   jjbrr 

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Posted 2010-April-28, 11:34

we do, gwnn
OK
bed
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#5 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-April-28, 11:59

Come on gwnn get with it!
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#6 User is offline   akhare 

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Posted 2010-April-28, 12:42

Well, you can even play this over 1D - (1) (a la Ambra), but I don't think that transfer responses after an overcall aren't permitted under the GCC (contrast this with transfer advances, which are explicitly permitted).

Of course, if you aren't in ACBL land or play MidChart+, it definitely sounds like a good method....
foobar on BBO
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