[mohitz]

Say you hold Axxx x AKxx J97x, RHO passes, you open 1D and hear the following.

1♦ - 1♥
1♠ - 2♣
?

Do you bid 2NT or 3♣?

Next deal you hold AKxx x KJ7x AJ9x, you open 1D and hear the following.

1♦ - 1♥
1♠ - 2♣
?

Do you bid 2NT or 3♣?

In general, do you always bid one of the two or does it change according to your hand? If it changes, what factors influence the decision?

Thanks

[effervesce]

3♣ for both for me-just patterning out.

[dealmegold]

First hand I bid 3C, J97x is not a stopper! Also I'm not too worried about the lead coming through my hand if p bids 3NT.

Second hand 2NT. Actually 3NT since with my partner 4sf is only invitational. But I definitely take preference to NT as I have the stoppers and I want the opening lead to come into my hand.

So it definitely depends on the hand!

[mike777]

great extreme examples...thanks

of course in example two you must bid 2d not 2c............




I play xyx so:
2c=forces 2d.....start of invational sequence
----------




2d=art game force 100%

[peachy]

I bid 3C on both hands. I am not rushing in to bid NT with a singleton in partner's suit and no source of tricks; if NT is right, 3C is not hindering it at all. "Raise of 4th suit shows 4 cards"

[lmilne]

mike777, on Feb 27 2010, 06:12 AM, said:

great extreme examples...thanks

of course in example two you must bid 2d not 2c............




I play xyx so:
2c=forces 2d.....start of invational sequence
----------




2d=art game force 100%

Most people don't play this. OP was asking about acting after 2♣ FSF.

I bid 3♣ in both, show much more of my hand this way. 2NT should be reserved for something different, dependent upon your general style with 4 spades and a balanced hand after 1♦-1♥.

No rush to get to 3NT, and partner can bid 3NT after I show him my shape. All of this assumes that FSF is GF.

[mohitz]

yes, FSF is GF. A note about style. We rebid 1S only on unbalanced hands. So in that context 2NT will show either 4144 or 4153 hands or perhaps some 4252 hands as well.

Bonus question: Suppose opener rebids 3C showing either 4144 or 4054 hand and you have 98x AJTxx AQTx x. Do you bid 3NT? Bidding 3NT might work out very poorly if partner has tenaces in clubs to protect.

[effervesce]

mohitz, on Feb 27 2010, 09:45 PM, said:

yes, FSF is GF. A note about style. We rebid 1S only on unbalanced hands. So in that context 2NT will show either 4144 or 4153 hands or perhaps some 4252 hands as well.

Bonus question: Suppose opener rebids 3C showing either 4144 or 4054 hand and you have 98x AJTxx AQTx x. Do you bid 3NT? Bidding 3NT might work out very poorly if partner has tenaces in clubs to protect.

With that hand you can bid 3♦ to show the diamond fit - no need yet to rush to 3NT or 5m.

[PhantomSac]

3C shows 4 clubs so thats perfect to me.

[straube]

It only costs me one step to pattern out, so 3C for me both hands.

You should consider playing XYZ here though.

2C-asks 2D if minimum
.....2D-shows minimum hand
..........P-to play
..........2H-GI
..........2S-GI
..........etc
2D-GF

[ONEferBRID]

XYZ aside ( although this hand is a poster child for same), Responder's hand is not worth a GF ( 4th suit ), so what invitational rebid does he have?

1♦ - 1♥
1♠ - ??

Responder: 98x    AJTxx    AQTx    x

[aguahombre]

ONEferBRID, on Feb 28 2010, 09:26 AM, said:

XYZ aside ( although this hand is a poster child for same),  Responder's hand is not worth a GF ( 4th suit ), so what invitational rebid does he have?

1♦ - 1♥
1♠ - ??

Responder:  98x     AJTxx     AQTx     x

3D --if partner is accepting game and has 3 hearts, he will bid 3H next.