[inquiry]

Scoring: MP


2N-4N
6N - ALL PASS

Opening lead ♣5

Six ♦ would be easy. I would like to say that this was a matchpoint decision to play in NT, but North thought 4NT was blackwood, south thought it was quantitative.

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I am going to force the first 9 tricks on you. You have 11 sure tricks, a spade hook will see you home. Any other options?

T1. C5-9-T-♣A
T2. ♦A-2-3-5
T3. ♦Q-T-4-H3
T4. ♦J-C6-6-C2
T5. D9-S2-♦K-H4
T6. ♦8-H6-H2-S-4
T7. ♦7-H7-C4-C8
T8. H5-T-♥A-8
T9. ♥K-J-S3-C3

Scoring: MP


2N-4N
6N - ALL PASS

Opening lead ♣5

Six ♦ would be easy. I would like to say that this was a matchpoint decision to play in NT, but North thought 4NT was blackwood, south thought it was quantitative.

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[bb79]

Another option is to play the remaining cards of RHO to be ♠Qx ♣K, therefore you can endplay him by playing a ♣ at trick 10.

[quiddity]

Repost with rotated deal and current position:

Scoring: MP

Opening lead ♣5

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Scoring: MP

Opening lead ♣5

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[quiddity]

Yes, one option is to exit a club after cashing the king of spades. That means playing East as 3514 with the spade queen and club king, which would make West 4324 with the club jack.

West's opening lead is unusual if that were the case. How many people lead from jack-fourth against 6NT on this auction?

Another possibility is that West started with 5323 and the spade queen, and made a passive lead from 865 of clubs - and perhaps East has Tx of spades and made a great play by not pitching them.

Edit: It is difficult to rate the level of play on this one. Getting it right consistently would require having a good read on the opponents, drawing the right inferences from their tempo on opening lead and on their discards, using the information to construct possible hands at trick 10. The endplay technique is the easy part.

[inquiry]

This was an odd hand I witnessed. OF course, most people tried the club Queen at trick one, which was headed by the KING. When that failed, they eventually took the spade finessee that failed. I see nothing wrong with that line. However, from the table at which I took the bidding/play from declarer took the position at trick one that WEST would not lead from the club king, so played low. Then at this point, he violated (at least in some ways) his initial position and took the spade hook -- which lost.

I have no real feel for which line is best, and as such this was not a great problem hand, but it seems to me if you play low at trick one, you are going to have to at least consider the club throw-in. I was just wonder who would back the trick one judgement at trick 11. OF course at this point it is still pretty much a guess.

[ONEferBRID]

Getting to the easier 6D ( using modified 2006 ACBL Bulletin method )

♠ K7
♥ AK92
♦ AQJ9
♣ A74

♠ AJ93
♥ 5
♦ K87643
♣ Q9
Edit:
2NT - 3S! ( relay to 3NT! )
3NT! - 4C! ( Long diamond slam try; Opener replies as keycard ).
4D ( 0 or 3 ) - 4H ( ♦ Q-ask )
4S ( ♦Q + ♠K ) - 4NT ( 2nd K-ask )
5H ( ♥K, denying ♣K - 6D

___________________________________
Full treatment after
2NT - 3S! ( relay to 3NT! )
3NT! - ??
4C = Long diamond slam try; Opener replies as keycard.
4D = Long clubs slam try; Opener replies as keycard .
4H = both minors, short in hearts; Opener replies as 6 Ace key card.
4S = both minors, short in spades; Opener replies as 6 Ace key card.
4NT = balanced slam invitational hand with 4-4 in the minors.

[bb79]

hmmm sometimes 6♠ is a better contract, why don't we check if 2nt opener has 4 or 5 spades first? like KQTx AKxx Ax KJx.

[ONEferBRID]

bb79, on Feb 4 2010, 06:34 PM, said:

hmmm sometimes 6♠ is a better contract, why don't we check if 2nt opener has 4 or 5 spades first? like KQTx AKxx Ax KJx.

bb79... you are right.... check for a 4-4 Sp fit first.
( I " couldn't see the forest thru the trees " )

2NT - 3C! ( Puppet)
3D! - 3H! ( have 4s but not 4h )
3NT - 4D ( longer Diam than Sp , slammish )
4H ( Redwood ) - 5C ( 3rd step = 2 - dQ )
5H ( specific K-ask ) - 6D ( no outside K's )
pass

[hanp]

inquiry, on Feb 4 2010, 05:39 PM, said:

This was an odd hand I witnessed. OF course, most people tried the club Queen at trick one, which was headed by the KING. When that failed, they eventually took the spade finessee that failed. I see nothing wrong with that line. However, from the table at which I took the bidding/play from declarer took the position at trick one that WEST would not lead from the club king, so played low. Then at this point, he violated (at least in some ways) his initial position and took the spade hook -- which lost.

I have no real feel for which line is best, and as such this was not a great problem hand, but it seems to me if you play low at trick one, you are going to have to at least consider the club throw-in. I was just wonder who would back the trick one judgement at trick 11. OF course at this point it is still pretty much a guess.

I don't understand your argument. You duck at trick 1 because you judge that it is extremely unlikely that the club king is onside and you want to keep your options open. At trick 11, when you surely have a much better picture of the hand, you decide which line to take. Seems right to me.

[inquiry]

hanp, on Feb 5 2010, 04:00 AM, said:

inquiry, on Feb 4 2010, 05:39 PM, said:

This was an odd hand I witnessed. OF course, most people tried the club Queen at trick one, which was headed by the KING. When that failed, they eventually took the spade finessee that failed. I see nothing wrong with that line. However, from the table at which I took the bidding/play from declarer took the position at trick one that WEST would not lead from the club king, so played low. Then at this point, he violated (at least in some ways) his initial position and took the spade hook -- which lost.

I have no real feel for which line is best, and as such this was not a great problem hand, but it seems to me if you play low at trick one, you are going to have to at least consider the club throw-in.  I was just wonder who would back the trick one judgement at trick 11. OF course at this point it is still pretty much a guess.

I don't understand your argument. You duck at trick 1 because you judge that it is extremely unlikely that the club king is onside and you want to keep your options open. At trick 11, when you surely have a much better picture of the hand, you decide which line to take. Seems right to me.

You maybe right. It looks like WEST began life with 4♠ to east's three. If that presumptive count is correct, West will have the Qieen on 20 holding to East's 15 holding (57% or so for play west for queen). Perhaps this is what you meant, and perhaps that is reasonable logic to favor the hook after not playing the queen at trick one.

Howver, for this to be correct math, West has come down to one heart, the club JACK and two spades. If that is the case, cash spade King and throw East in with a club can never lose... no matter who has the ♠Q. However, West may have only had 3♣ all along, in which case East is holding ♣KJ and two spades. In this case, the only chance is to hook spade (71% success rate). The full hand was....

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