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WTP?

#1 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 04:28

KQJ
A962
Q2
K984


1-1
1-2
2-??


no walsh 1, partner might still be balanced, if you wouldn't had bid 2 please say so.
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#2 User is offline   hotShot 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 04:47

3NT seems a comfortable spot.
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#3 User is offline   Ant590 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 05:13

if 2 was forcing to game, I can't see a problem with 2 here. If it isn't I think I just put 3NT on the table.
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#4 User is offline   655321 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 05:38

Ant590, on Jan 28 2010, 06:13 AM, said:

if 2 was forcing to game, I can't see a problem with 2 here.

You would bid 2 here with four card spades in a similar hand, I don't see any point in showing 4 spades when you have perfectly good notrump bids available. Maybe 4 will make in the 4-3 fit anyway, but it still seems like an unnecessary complication to me.
That's impossible. No one can give more than one hundred percent. By definition that is the most anyone can give.
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#5 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 06:20

Ok, so it is 15 HCP instead of 14. I would still have bid 3NT on the second round. This auction is already more complicated than I would have liked, and has given too much information to the defenders.
3NT now.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#6 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 06:44

Agree with above. Messy bidding if opener can still be balanced - for me she has shown 4351
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#7 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 07:32

Well I must admit I would have bid 3NT on the round before.

-a shadow from some past century
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#8 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 08:13

I correct my misbid from last round and bid the obvious 3 NT :(
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#9 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 08:23

2N, 3N now would show a better hand to me (16-17ish).
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#10 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 08:42

When we can bid a natural GF 2NT, it shows either a minimum GF (here: good 12 to modest 15) or more than a 3NT bid (i.e. 18+ here).

So I think this hand is close to 3NT, but 2NT it is.

I would have bid 3NT on the round before, though. By bidding via FSF I show either the 18+ type, or interest in some other strain, probably diamonds.
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#11 User is offline   andy_h 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 08:50

I'm not sure I quite understand people suggesting 3NT the round before? Isn't that usually whatever your designated range is, but normally a hand that doesn't have much interest in opener's suit? Here we have KQJ A Q so I definitely prefer to see if I can find out if opener can be 4162 at a comfortable level rather than bidding 3NT and have opener to guess what to do over that.
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#12 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 08:52

I think bidding 4th suit is normal. I don't want to play in 3NT opposite Axxx Kx KJxxxx x.

The style is rather alien to me, but if partner can still be either 4342 or 4351, presumably I now have to bid 2NT to give him a chance to say which he has.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#13 User is offline   hotShot 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 09:29

andy_h, on Jan 28 2010, 03:50 PM, said:

I'm not sure I quite understand people suggesting 3NT the round before? Isn't that usually whatever your designated range is, but normally a hand that doesn't have much interest in opener's suit? Here we have KQJ A Q so I definitely prefer to see if I can find out if opener can be 4162 at a comfortable level rather than bidding 3NT and have opener to guess what to do over that.

Would you agree that after:
1 - 1
1
the only reasonable fit can be in or less likely in .
If partner has a 6-card suit, this will be a great source of tricks in 3NT.
And it's far from sure that there is a fit, because that would require opener to hold a 4144 (4054) shape.
We are strong enough for 3NT and our side can't benefit much from further bidding.
If we bid 3NT now, LHO might lead a or , which in this case seems not to dangerous as partner has 3's.

Now that partner bid 2, we can expect a lead and I don't think it's to our advantage.
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#14 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 10:30

thx for the answers, partner had today:

9xxx
KQx
AKxxxx
-


Not playing 2NT forcing now I was completelly stuck with no rebid, guess I'll have to change my system a bit.

4-1 made 3NT unmakeable.
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#15 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 10:32

LOL fluffy you beat me I was about to say "2NT and I hate 3NT, partner could even be 4360"

Seriously field what's the rush to bid 3NT? We don't even have very strong clubs. Or hearts! If I was going to make an agreement about 3NT over 1 it would definitely have at least two certain stoppers in both hearts and clubs. In fact it's so unlikely I would want to bid it that I could imagine wanting to play 1-1-1-3NT as something artificial, like a raise of the last bid suit to came on a balanced hand that thinks 3NT might be better.
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#16 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 14:19

Fluffy, on Jan 28 2010, 05:28 AM, said:

KQJ
A962
Q2
K984


1-1
1-2
2-??


no walsh 1, partner might still be balanced, if you wouldn't had bid 2 please say so.

3nt not 2c which would be artificial for me (xyz)

3nt lets pard know I have a balanced minimum.....14-15. If she wants to bid on, fine.
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#17 User is offline   andy_h 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 18:26

hotShot, on Jan 29 2010, 02:29 AM, said:

andy_h, on Jan 28 2010, 03:50 PM, said:

I'm not sure I quite understand people suggesting 3NT the round before? Isn't that usually whatever your designated range is, but normally a hand that doesn't have much interest in opener's suit? Here we have KQJ A Q so I definitely prefer to see if I can find out if opener can be 4162 at a comfortable level rather than bidding 3NT and have opener to guess what to do over that.

Would you agree that after:
1 - 1
1
the only reasonable fit can be in or less likely in .
If partner has a 6-card suit, this will be a great source of tricks in 3NT.
And it's far from sure that there is a fit, because that would require opener to hold a 4144 (4054) shape.
We are strong enough for 3NT and our side can't benefit much from further bidding.
If we bid 3NT now, LHO might lead a or , which in this case seems not to dangerous as partner has 3's.

Now that partner bid 2, we can expect a lead and I don't think it's to our advantage.

Our fit can still lie within clubs or diamonds and I certainly wouldn't say they occur rarely. Like you said, if partner has a 6 diamonds this will be a great source of tricks in 3NT, so that means he has 4x6x. Aren't you liking your slam chances? Like jdonn said, our heart and club stoppers aren't even great so 3NT could well be going off. And also, if I find out about a club fit I will be in a much better position than you'll be because I know partner is short in hearts.
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#18 User is offline   hotShot 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 19:05

andy_h, on Jan 29 2010, 01:26 AM, said:

Our fit can still lie within clubs or diamonds and I certainly wouldn't say they occur rarely. Like you said, if partner has a 6 diamonds this will be a great source of tricks in 3NT, so that means he has 4x6x. Aren't you liking your slam chances? Like jdonn said, our heart and club stoppers aren't even great so 3NT could well be going off. And also, if I find out about a club fit I will be in a much better position than you'll be because I know partner is short in hearts.

Would you agree that after:
1 - 1
1
opener has 4+ exactly 4 and less than 4?
This means that:
4342 => 25,5%
4243 => 25,3%
4252 => 12,3% (typo corrected)
4351 => 7,7%
4153 => 7,6%
So in 78,4% of the cases our side has no fit and should be in 3NT.
4144 =>10,7%
4261 => 2,7%
4162 => 2,7%
In another 16.1% 3 NT is not necessarily bad.
In this about 95% slam is unlikely unless partner has much more than a minimum opening.
I'm sure if partner has extra strength or shape he will bid again over 3NT.

So if I know that 3NT is our contract in something between 78 and ~90% of the cases, why should I exchange more information that won't help me much, but could make opps find the best lead?

On the given board the chance not to find a 3-2 break in was 32%.
This was bad luck, I would not change my strategy based on bad luck.

This post has been edited by hotShot: 2010-January-29, 03:45

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#19 User is offline   andy_h 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 19:42

hotShot, on Jan 29 2010, 12:05 PM, said:

andy_h, on Jan 29 2010, 01:26 AM, said:

Our fit can still lie within clubs or diamonds and I certainly wouldn't say they occur rarely. Like you said, if partner has a 6 diamonds this will be a great source of tricks in 3NT, so that means he has 4x6x. Aren't you liking your slam chances? Like jdonn said, our heart and club stoppers aren't even great so 3NT could well be going off. And also, if I find out about a club fit I will be in a much better position than you'll be because I know partner is short in hearts.

Would you agree that after:
1 - 1
1
opener has 4+ exactly 4 and less than 4?
This means that:
4342 => 25,5%
4243 => 25,3%
4242 => 12,3%
4351 => 7,7%
4153 => 7,6%
So in 78,4% of the cases our side has no fit and should be in 3NT.
4144 =>10,7%
4261 => 2,7%
4162 => 2,7%
In another 16.1% 3 NT is not necessarily bad.
In this about 95% slam is unlikely unless partner has much more than a minimum opening.
I'm sure if partner has extra strength or shape he will bid again over 3NT.

So if I know that 3NT is our contract in something between 78 and ~90% of the cases, why should I exchange more information that won't help me much, but could make opps find the best lead?

On the given board the chance not to find a 3-2 break in was 32%.
This was bad luck, I would not change my strategy based on bad luck.

Exactly 4? Partner can't be 56?

I don't really know percentages so I'll trust with your figures. My question is, our opponents have already heard us bid 3 suits so most of the time they will already know which suit they're going to lead. Gathering more information from partner will benefit us a whole lot more as we need to determine which game we belong in. Sure I agree with you that more often than not we belong in 3NT but the added chances that we can get to a slam or find out 5 is better than 3NT is just too great to pass up on. Slam can even make without extra strength! Axxx x KJ10xxx Ax or Axxx Kx AJ10xxx x or 10xxx x AKxxxxx A or xxxx x AKxxxx AQ etc. I would feel much safer to be able to show these hands and *then* get to 3NT (if responder has no slam interest) rather than partner bashing 3NT and having us to guess if we should go past 3NT or not.

Take gnasher's example as well where 5 is much superior than 3NT. Would you also find yourself unlucky?
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#20 User is offline   fred 

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Posted 2010-January-28, 19:52

hotShot, on Jan 29 2010, 01:05 AM, said:

4342 => 25,5%
4243 => 25,3%
4242 => 12,3%
4351 => 7,7%
4153 => 7,6%
4144 =>10,7%
4261 => 2,7%
4162 => 2,7%

I am not sure how you came up with these numbers, but they feel very wrong to me. For one thing, you seem to be implying that partner will have exactly 4 diamonds over 60% of the time (and I realize that 4242 was a typo - I am not counting that).

If that is right I may have to give up bridge.

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