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minor after 1nt forcing

#1 User is offline   bftboy 

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Posted 2010-January-18, 17:05

This is kind of the flip side of the hand I posted the other day. P bids 1, and you hold a charmer like x Q10xx xx KJxxxx. You bid 1nt forcing and P rebids 2. What now? I am just trying to sound out some opinions on how to handle these sorts of hands, relative advantages and disadvantages of methods, etc.

thx, :)
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2010-January-18, 17:14

I pass. 3 might get doubled.
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#3 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-January-18, 17:18

I pass too, more because I worry about him bidding again over 3 (like he might bid 3 and then I'll really wish I had passed).
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#4 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-January-18, 17:22

3-2 fit sometimes make on this kind of hands, this one looks a bit desperate though.
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#5 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-January-18, 18:16

I give false preference to 2S. I do not pass 2D.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#6 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2010-January-19, 01:41

Hi,

2S.

I think that is pretty clear - unless you play 2D as guranteing a 4 carder,
a common, but not universal agreement, and even if 2D showes a 4 carder,
I would bid 2S.

The problem you describe is also existing playing standard, i.e. when
the 1 NT response is nonforcing.
Playing forcing NT, you can agree to play art. stuff, which allow you partially to
avoid bad fits, if you happen to hold a hand you described, but there is no 100%
solution, sometimes you have to pray and hope for the best.

As a general rule: Always convert to p first suit even if you have 1 card more in
p 2nd suit, many may not agree with this general rule, but well if you adopt the
rule, you will at least avoid a lot of headaches.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#7 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2010-January-19, 11:04

This hand falls in a crack in whatever the system is. I would pass and hope nobody doubles. If doubling begins, I might bid 3C, but then when partner corrects to 3D, we are deeper in the mud than we were the round before.
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#8 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2010-January-19, 12:37

Giving us this hand, I generated 10000 random hands for opener. Here are opener's shapes:

5332: 2019 times
5143: 720 times
5044: 69 times
5242: 1775 times
5341: 1424 times
6-4: 1371 times
5-5: 1752 times
Eleven or more cards in the pointed suits: 870 times

This suggests to me that bidding 3 is a good idea. Passing or correcting to spades will lead to a fit of six or fewer cards on a substantial majority of the hands. Partner will have at least a doubleton club more than half the time (keep in mind that some of the 5-5 and 6-4 hands will have 2+ clubs as well as the hands from the top four categories). Of course it helps if we play invitational jump shifts, so partner knows that a 3 bid in this auction is "to play" and not a try for game.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#9 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2010-January-19, 12:44

Pass.

2s second choice.

3c for me would be invite


I dont have a way to show weak hand with long clubs starting with 1s so after:

1s=1nt
2d=?
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#10 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-January-19, 12:49

Adam I see two major problems.

One is when we are this weak and partner is a minimum 5332 the opponents are likely to have overcalled diamonds by now. For that matter the same concern applies to hearts on any of the shapes with 0-1. But of course I don't doubt pass could reach a 3-2 fit, I'm just saying if you consider opponents passing throughout then I'm sure you are overstating it.

The other is that part of the problem is partner might take a 3rd bid. When our hand is this bad then the action that ends the auction might not be a bad idea. It's all well and good to reach your club fit but you might not stop there.

But bidding 3 is not a bad idea. The bid that makes no sense to me at all is 2, combining the likelyhood of a dumb fit with the possibility partner bids again.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#11 User is offline   Al_U_Card 

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Posted 2010-January-19, 15:16

If 2 D promises 4 then I would pass. If not, I would bid 3C to play, as I learned it originally back in the 80's.

2S? The only time I would expect that I might have to play in a fit where the opps have more of our trumps than we do is when I open a weak 2. (And then, at least, I have all 6 in one hand.)
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#12 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2010-January-19, 17:07

jdonn, on Jan 19 2010, 11:49 AM, said:

One is when we are this weak and partner is a minimum 5332 the opponents are likely to have overcalled diamonds by now.


I think you are overstating this. (1) Opps won't overcall diamonds when they split 4-4, which takes out almost a third of these. (2) Opps with reasonable 2 level overcall suit quality requirements will stop them from acting on a decent chunk of the large # of 5-3 splits (3) We are short in spades, that gives opps more spades, = they are less likely to make takeout double, plus the spade holding may discourage them from acting on some marginal overcall hands.

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The other is that part of the problem is partner might take a 3rd bid.

A good partner shouldn't bid very often here. He knows you are weak and misfit, he should cede to the weak hand long suit, even with most extreme 2 suiters. He didn't jump-shift his 2nd turn, I see opener bidding on practically never. At least opener should make a 3rd bid practically never, IMO (without some sort of club fit).
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