[Fluffy]

So You have K9432 for example and have to lead against 3NT. What card do you lead playign 4th best?

Also say you play 3rd&5th and have K432 would you lead the 4?

[mikeh]

I didn't vote on your poll, because none of the answers accorded with the way I feel about your questions.

Frankly, I don't understand the questions. I mean, what card do you think is the 4th best from K5432? It is the 3. So, if your agreement is 4th best, you lead the 3, unless you are deliberately attempting to fool partner and declarer.

There are times when the lead of the 2 will persuade declarer that a suit breaks well...so he can plan his play accordingly. Say he has a choice between a working finesse or driving out an Ace in a different suit...if he thinks that you can't cash enough tricks to set him, he'll drive out the Ace rather than risk the finesse, assuming he doesn't know it's working. If he thinks that he can't afford to lose the lead, he'll take the hook.

But, playing this style is risky and raises ethical issues.

Partner may insert the wrong card at trick 1, relying on the rule of 11. Or he may switch, mistakenly placing declarer with the 'extra' card that you have concealed. He may later misdefend based on a wrong appreciation of declarer's shape.

And if you do it often enough that partner starts to cater to your lead style, the opps are entitled to this information as well.

All of this applies to your second example as well: your lead by agreement is the 3. Anything else is a departure from your announced methods. Nothing improper about that: until you do it several times with the same partner, who thus becomes party to an implicit and undisclosed partnership agreement.

[jdonn]

I want to vote yes on both of your first two poll options.

[jonottawa]

If leading 4 best and I have the 4, I lead it.

If you are trying for a swing, better to lead the 2, I should think. Do this VERY rarely.