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simple question

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 09:42

2/1, forcing NT.

Somebody told me about this:

1-1NT
2m-3

and

1-3

both show 6 good hearts and about 10 points but one of them promises exactly 2 spades and the other one shows 0-1 spades. What do you think of this? Which one should be which? I was thinking perhaps over 1S-1N 2S it might make sense to just jump to 4H directly with 2-6 in the majors (possible overbid)?

Somebody else told me that

1-1N
2m-3 should be a cuebid (A, K, singleton or void) for the minor. I don't think that's a very good idea but maybe a fit jump for the minor could be better? If it is a FJ should it be 5-4, 5-5, 4-5, 4-6, ?
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#2 User is offline   ONEferBRID 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 10:46

gwnn, on Nov 9 2009, 10:42 AM, said:

2/1, forcing NT.

Somebody told me about this:

1-1NT
2m-3

and

1-3

both show 6 good hearts and about 10 points but one of them promises exactly 2 spades and the other one shows 0-1 spades. What do you think of this? Which one should be which? I was thinking perhaps over 1S-1N 2S it might make sense to just jump to 4H directly with 2-6 in the majors (possible overbid)?

Somebody else told me that

1-1N
2m-3 should be a cuebid (A, K, singleton or void) for the minor. I don't think that's a very good idea but maybe a fit jump for the minor could be better? If it is a FJ should it be 5-4, 5-5, 4-5, 4-6, ?

I believe this one is almost exactly like the problem kfay posted last week ( or so ).
[ I can't seem to find it now ] .
I believe it went:
1H - 1NT ( not known if forcing or not )
2D - 4Cjump

Some thought it was a splinter for Diam... but would have to be a hand such as
3 2 7 1 ...

Others opted for a fit-jump... a hand like:
2 1 4 6....but this was rejected because the poster said 1H - 3C would describe such a hand....

Moster were "perplexed" , including me... and I asked kfay to tell us what was described at the table... no reply
Don Stenmark ( TWOferBRIDGE )
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#3 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 10:51

It is well known that 1-1NT (forcing) - 2m - 2 is an artificial strong raise of opener's minor suit.

How to accomplish the same thing after 1-1NT (forcing) - 2m is far more troublesome. Since responder can actually have a heart suit without the values to make a 2/1, 2 is not available for this purpose.

I would reserve 3 for a strong raise of the minor suit rather than a hand with hearts alone. Whether it should show hearts (a fit jump) or be totally artificial is up to the player.

If one held a good enough hand with just hearts to justify a 3 bid over 2m, then the hand was probably good enough to bid 2 over 1.
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#4 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 10:51

ONEferBRID, on Nov 9 2009, 11:46 AM, said:

Others opted for a fit-jump... a hand like:
2 1 4 6....but this was rejected because the poster said 1H - 3C would describe such a hand....

I don't believe it was rejected. The clubs may not be good enough for 3 last round, or he could fit jump with 2155, 2164, 1255, 1246, 1264, or shapes like 2173 as well.

In this thread usually if you bid 1NT first you have 2-6 simply as a way to differentiate and not play in a worse fit. But I like the jumps below 3NT as fit jumps promising at least 5-4 and being non-forcing.
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#5 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 10:55

FWIW, I think there is pot5entially a wild difference between:

1-1NT-2-3 and
1-1NT-2-3

That is, if you play BART.

Playing BART, on the first you could bid 2 and then 3 no matter what Opener does (just about) or bid 3 directly. These should, IMO, be different.
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#6 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 11:02

You could play 1N then 3H as:

1) Fit showing
2) Invitational with a weak suit
3) Invitational with a doubleton spade
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#7 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 22:01

Jlall, on Nov 9 2009, 12:02 PM, said:

You could play 1N then 3H as:

1) Fit showing
2) Invitational with a weak suit
3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter
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#8 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 22:09

I think I will let the Hog do this one, too.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#9 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 22:09

gwnn, on Nov 9 2009, 10:42 AM, said:

2/1, forcing NT.

Somebody told me about this:

1-1NT
2m-3

and

1-3

both show 6 good hearts and about 10 points but one of them promises exactly 2 spades and the other one shows 0-1 spades. What do you think of this? Which one should be which? I was thinking perhaps over 1S-1N 2S it might make sense to just jump to 4H directly with 2-6 in the majors (possible overbid)?

Somebody else told me that

1-1N
2m-3 should be a cuebid (A, K, singleton or void)  for the minor. I don't think that's a very good idea but maybe a fit jump for the minor could be better? If it is a FJ should it be 5-4, 5-5, 4-5, 4-6, ?

Hopefully this is on point.

many play:


1s=1nt
2c=BART so:


3h=6+h and invitational values.

---

I would just guess that:
1s=1nt
2d=3h=same...



----



I play 1s=3h as unspecified suit (stiff or void) splinter......3s asks, 3nt relay says unspecified void, etc:
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#10 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2009-November-09, 22:12

Phil, on Nov 9 2009, 11:01 PM, said:

Jlall, on Nov 9 2009, 12:02 PM, said:

You could play 1N then 3H as:

1) Fit showing
2) Invitational with a weak suit
3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think
a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or
b) was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?
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#11 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 15:42

cherdanno, on Nov 10 2009, 05:12 AM, said:

Phil, on Nov 9 2009, 11:01 PM, said:

Jlall, on Nov 9 2009, 12:02 PM, said:

You could play 1N then 3H as:

1) Fit showing
2) Invitational with a weak suit
3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think
a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or
:blink: was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?

Are we only allowed to suggest things that Justin thinks are a good idea?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#12 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 16:02

Given that you don't have spade support, what shape are you implying by bidding 3 splinter?

2-1-5-5
2-1-6-4
1-1-6-5
1-1-5-6

Seems kind of unlikely to me.
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#13 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 16:20

ArtK78, on Nov 10 2009, 05:02 PM, said:

Given that you don't have spade support, what shape are you implying by bidding 3 splinter?

2-1-5-5
2-1-6-4
1-1-6-5
1-1-5-6

Seems kind of unlikely to me.

Why do you not have spade support?

Can't you be in theory making a splinter with spade support?

How about 3-1-5-4 or 3-1-4-5, with a limit raise valuation?

I'm not saying here that this is the right way to play, but...

Qxx x Qxxxx Axxx opposite
AKxxx xxx AKxx x?

In 6, with normal splits, we take five diamonds, one club, and three spades on power, for 9 tricks. If spades split no worse that 4-1, that's trick #10. If diamondssplit no worse than 3-1, that's trick #11. So, we need diamonds or spades to cooperate better, or a spade Jack, or a working spade 10, of something.

Not a bad diamond slam.

6? Not so good.
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#14 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 16:43

gnasher, on Nov 10 2009, 04:42 PM, said:

cherdanno, on Nov 10 2009, 05:12 AM, said:

Phil, on Nov 9 2009, 11:01 PM, said:

Jlall, on Nov 9 2009, 12:02 PM, said:

You could play 1N then 3H as:

1) Fit showing
2) Invitational with a weak suit
3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think
a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or
B) was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?

Are we only allowed to suggest things that Justin thinks are a good idea?

Sounds good to me! :unsure:
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#15 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 19:09

gnasher, on Nov 10 2009, 04:42 PM, said:

cherdanno, on Nov 10 2009, 05:12 AM, said:

Phil, on Nov 9 2009, 11:01 PM, said:

Jlall, on Nov 9 2009, 12:02 PM, said:

You could play 1N then 3H as:

1) Fit showing
2) Invitational with a weak suit
3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think
a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or
B) was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?

Are we only allowed to suggest things that Justin thinks are a good idea?

Am I not allowed to ask whether Phil thinks Justin forgot this meaning, or he thinks Justin thinks it's a bad meaning?
"Are you saying that LTC merits a more respectful dismissal?"
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#16 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 19:12

cherdanno, on Nov 10 2009, 08:09 PM, said:

gnasher, on Nov 10 2009, 04:42 PM, said:

cherdanno, on Nov 10 2009, 05:12 AM, said:

Phil, on Nov 9 2009, 11:01 PM, said:

Jlall, on Nov 9 2009, 12:02 PM, said:

You could play 1N then 3H as:

1) Fit showing
2) Invitational with a weak suit
3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think
a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or
:ph34r: was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?

Are we only allowed to suggest things that Justin thinks are a good idea?

Am I not allowed to ask whether Phil thinks Justin forgot this meaning, or he thinks Justin thinks it's a bad meaning?

No Phil was just listing a way 3 is played, since Justin's list was not complete.

He does not play this way, nor hasn't for quite a long time.

Others do play this method and their last name is not necessarily Rexford.
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#17 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2009-November-11, 18:26

ArtK78, on Nov 10 2009, 10:02 PM, said:

Given that you don't have spade support, what shape are you implying by bidding 3 splinter?

2-1-5-5
2-1-6-4
1-1-6-5
1-1-5-6

Seems kind of unlikely to me.

if you use 1-3 as splinter and the other as the limit it will make more sense.
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