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Interesting hand from last week's STaC

#1 User is offline   rduran1216 

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Posted 2009-September-02, 20:27



First and Foremost...

Do you open this hand in first seat?
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#2 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-September-02, 20:37

1 for now. This won't be much of a debate.

What happens?
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#3 User is offline   rduran1216 

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Posted 2009-September-02, 20:39

I opened 1D

1D 1H
1S 3NT

Now what?


your partner plays absolutely 0 conventions other than an eerily prediscussed, pulling someone out of 3NT is a slam try in the suit bid over 3NT
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#4 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2009-September-02, 21:33

rduran1216, on Sep 3 2009, 09:39 AM, said:

I opened 1D

1D 1H
1S 3NT

Now what?


your partner plays absolutely 0 conventions other than an eerily prediscussed, pulling someone out of 3NT is a slam try in the suit bid over 3NT

Well if you knew that pulling him from 3NT was a slam try, you shouldn't have opened.
Playing no 2 suited conventions, I pass first.
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#5 User is offline   rduran1216 

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Posted 2009-September-02, 22:48

The_Hog, on Sep 2 2009, 10:33 PM, said:

rduran1216, on Sep 3 2009, 09:39 AM, said:

I opened 1D

1D 1H
1S 3NT

Now what?


your partner plays absolutely 0 conventions other than an eerily prediscussed, pulling someone out of 3NT is a slam try in the suit bid over 3NT

Well if you knew that pulling him from 3NT was a slam try, you shouldn't have opened.
Playing no 2 suited conventions, I pass first.

if i pass...i will never be able to show the distributional nature of my hand
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#6 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 00:06

rduran1216, on Sep 3 2009, 11:48 AM, said:

The_Hog, on Sep 2 2009, 10:33 PM, said:

rduran1216, on Sep 3 2009, 09:39 AM, said:

I opened 1D

1D 1H
1S 3NT

Now what?


your partner plays absolutely 0 conventions other than an eerily prediscussed, pulling someone out of 3NT is a slam try in the suit bid over 3NT

Well if you knew that pulling him from 3NT was a slam try, you shouldn't have opened.
Playing no 2 suited conventions, I pass first.

if i pass...i will never be able to show the distributional nature of my hand

You will actually be able to show it more accurately with a 2 suited overcall.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#7 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 00:36

rduran1216, on Sep 2 2009, 09:27 PM, said:

Dealer: West
Vul: N/S
Scoring: Unknown
J10753
A
KJ97632
 
 


First and Foremost...

Do you open this hand in first seat?

pass

my hcp are in my short suit.

This seems like an easy pass, ...next?
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#8 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 01:17

I pass first time. I hope to then bid and then (unless opps show particular length in these suits).
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#9 User is offline   rd6789 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 04:07

rduran1216, on Sep 2 2009, 09:27 PM, said:

Do you open this hand in first seat?

No, I pass and hope to show the shape later by a X or a 2-suited overcall.
richard
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#10 User is offline   655321 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 04:36

Open 1 then bid spades twice.

This just shows 6-5, not sure how this can be taken as a slam try. Perhaps your partner has been burnt by pickup partners ripping his 3NT to 4m out of fear. He might just have been letting you know that 4 (instead of 4) over 3NT would be a slam try in diamonds, and not a hand that was too weak to play 3NT.
That's impossible. No one can give more than one hundred percent. By definition that is the most anyone can give.
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#11 User is offline   dilipshind 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 07:14

I'd bid 2D.
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#12 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 08:04

dilipshind, on Sep 11 2009, 08:14 AM, said:

I'd bid 2D.

LOL
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#13 User is offline   bid_em_up 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 08:08

dilipshind, on Sep 11 2009, 08:14 AM, said:

I'd bid 2D.

This is so wrong, I can't even manage to LOL at it*

*Unless the 2D opening shows some sort of diamonds+another, and even then, it gets an LOL.
Is the word "pass" not in your vocabulary?
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#14 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 08:10

1, then rebid twice. Partner should be able to realize what is going on after you pull to 4 hopefully. What partner said about slam tries, probably so you wouldn't pull their 3NT bids, however this is a clear pull of 3NT and partner should understand that. Passing looks decent, but with such long it will be very tough to show 5=7 here. Take the auction:

P - (1) - P - (4)
?

You can only show 1 suit, and if you do decide to show 2 suits you may have to play 5.

Compare that auction to this one:

1 - (1) - P - (4)
4

Now you've shown both suits with relatively accurate lengths, and who knows, partner might even make a negative double on the first round!

Of course if the opponents' suit is clubs then it is much harder, but it won't be much easier anyway if you pass first.
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#15 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 10:23

The_Hog, on Sep 2 2009, 10:33 PM, said:

rduran1216, on Sep 3 2009, 09:39 AM, said:

I opened 1D

1D 1H
1S 3NT

Now what?


your partner plays absolutely 0 conventions other than an eerily prediscussed, pulling someone out of 3NT is a slam try in the suit bid over 3NT

Well if you knew that pulling him from 3NT was a slam try, you shouldn't have opened.
Playing no 2 suited conventions, I pass first.

And this is only one of the bidding sequences why passing first causes you less burn
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#16 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 10:50

we are limited by the 1 bid, 4 cannot be a slam try IN SPADES. So your only convention doesn't apply. If you are 100% sure it does, then try 5.


BTW preempting in diamonds then bidding 4 might show this hand pretty well, I don't understand how 2 guys can laugh of a newcomer's bid on a far from expert's forum without giving any reason.
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#17 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-September-14, 09:49

mtvesuvius, on Sep 11 2009, 09:04 AM, said:

dilipshind, on Sep 11 2009, 08:14 AM, said:

I'd bid 2D.

LOL

Not that crazy.
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#18 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2009-September-14, 10:09

Again, I am glad I don't have 2D available to abuse. Am not worried about opening one diamond and removing to 4S on the posted auction.

Even though the 1S rebid did not limit my strength (might be a balanced 2NT rebid with 4 spades in our style), the removal of 3NT to 4S is really weak. This is because with a very strong two suiter I would have JS rebid 2S -- and with a decent two-suited minimum I would have opened 1S, not 1D.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#19 User is offline   ONEferBRID 

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Posted 2009-September-14, 16:44

Pass, then as Hog said:

Quote

You will actually be able to show it more accurately with a 2 suited overcall.
.

I know, it may be a problem with "ordinary" Michaels when Sp is one of the suits.

There is a modification to Michaels that can always get Sp into the fray -- and that is with Bailey Cuebids:

If it goes p p ( 1C) - ??
then 2C! = Spades and one of the other 2 suits ( ie. one of those that would have been shown with a Un2NT! bid ) -- Hts or Diam.

If it goes p p ( 1H ) - ??
then Bailey = Michaels : 2H! = Sp and a minor
Don Stenmark ( TWOferBRIDGE )
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#20 User is offline   Flameous 

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Posted 2009-September-15, 08:20

Highest and other has been known as Michael's Cue in Finland for as long as I know but I've never heard of Bailey's Cue.

Anyhow for the actual hand, I pass in first and second. On third I open 2 or 3.
Playing precision or other weak opening system, I open with 1. I can't reverse in to spades and I don't want to put myself into position where I would have to. True, it's not so big problem with s but still comes up.
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