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f1 or fg? 2/1

#1 User is offline   ochinko 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 01:45

Unfav, IMPs. You have agreed on 2/1.

You deal and open 1. LHO intervenes with 1, and your partned bids 2. How much force has his bid?

Let's say RHO passes, you now bid 2NT, LHO passes, and partner raises to 3. What does this look like - sign off, invitation or forcing to game?
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#2 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 01:47

Not forcing to game, just for 1 round.

Reason: There is no forcing NT here!
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#3 User is offline   dicklont 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 03:22

Forcing for one round, 10+.
The 3 rebid is done with a 10-12 hand.

Many play 2 as non-forcing, 8-11 HCP.
I don't like that treatment, it either messes up your negative double or your cuebid.
I want the cuebid in to show support, not random strong hands.
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#4 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 04:32

Quote

I don't like that treatment, it either messes up your negative double or your cuebid.


Either treatment is okay, strong bridge nations like Poland have NF freebids as standard.
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#5 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 18:28

"Normal" for 2/1 is that 2 is just F1 in comp and the 3 rebid is NF as others have said.
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#6 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 18:32

Gerben42, on May 8 2009, 05:32 AM, said:

Quote

I don't like that treatment, it either messes up your negative double or your cuebid.


Either treatment is okay, strong bridge nations like Poland have NF freebids as standard.

How well does the NFB fit in with the Polish Club? I don't have enough experience with this to have an informed opinion.
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#7 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 20:34

F1. I know of no system where 2D is GF. Also, what common system you play, has nothing to do with whether 2D is forcing or not forcing because it is a matter of partnership agreement. Standard is F1, at least where I play, while NFB is playable if it was agreed.
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