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redouble trouble

#1 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2009-May-07, 02:30

Scoring: MP

1♠-(x)-xx-(p);?

Redouble implied no fit, you are playing transfers starting with 1nt.

Pass or 2♠, and why?
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#2 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2009-May-07, 02:31

Pass, because if partner doubles something, I'm not placed badly because I do not have a shortness in the suit partner is about to Dbl. If LHO bids something and partner does not Dbl, I will of course rebid my ♠.
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#3 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-May-07, 07:15

Pulling the redouble at this stage requires a very offensive hand, say

KQJxxx
--
KQxx
xxx

Ours is actually quite ok on the defensive department, so pass and see whether pard can double them.
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#4 User is offline   Mbodell 

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Posted 2009-May-07, 17:29

I think I pass. When I held this hand on the same auction and implications my RHO bid, not passed, and I choose to bid 2♠, so maybe to be consistent I should raise to avoid them finding a fit? But if opponents are confused maybe they let me play 1♠xx (someone did at our club).
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#5 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-May-07, 17:59

Pass... to pull I really have to have offense. I have plenty of defense too, so I'm fine whatever happens.
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#6 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-May-07, 18:42

obv pass.
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#7 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2009-May-07, 21:03

Pass.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#8 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 11:50

The problem continues:

1♠-(x)-xx-(p);
p-(2♦)-x-(2♥);
?
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#9 User is offline   RichMor 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 12:57

Stephen Tu, on May 8 2009, 12:50 PM, said:

The problem continues:

1♠-(x)-xx-(p);
p-(2♦)-x-(2♥);
?

Pass again, which is forcing.
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#10 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 12:59

Yup, pass again on the same logic by which you passed the first time.
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#11 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-May-08, 13:31

Pass still...
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#12 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 04:29

1♠-(x)-xx-(p);
p-(2♦)-x-(2♥);
p-(p)-2♠-(p);
?
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#13 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 05:49

I can only imagine one problem with this auction. And, I have an easy solution that I have worked out.

Ask the guy to your right for one of his green cards.
"Gibberish in, gibberish out. A trial judge, three sets of lawyers, and now three appellate judges cannot agree on what this law means. And we ask police officers, prosecutors, defense lawyers, and citizens to enforce or abide by it? The legislature continues to write unreadable statutes. Gibberish should not be enforced as law."

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#14 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 08:49

Pass again, partner doesn't have real support or a forcing hand or he would do something stronger.
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#15 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 10:28

These are very easy questions.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#16 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 10:51

Scoring: MP

1♠-(x)-xx-(p);
p-(2♦)-x-(2♥);
p-(p)-2♠-(p);
all pass


West needs to lead a diamond to hold you to 3, which ought to be possible on the auction since his partner implied diamond shortness. But he didn't. Nor did other Wests. 9/12 reached 4♠, only 1 failed, and 1 made 5(!!). 3nt is cold but wouldn't have gained much in practice.

ATB:
(1) Field for being lousy opening leaders. (Though they might well perpetrate different auctions that make it more difficult to find. As a side question, what's the std expert scrambling agreements for E-W, I assume 1nt ought to be utilized on both sides, to show what exactly?)
(2) Partner for not bidding more. (what)?
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#17 User is offline   ochinko 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 15:35

2♠ the first time (after the rdbl).

Because it's MP where the fight for the part score is fierce. Having 6 spades, and quite solid too, and knowing that I will be willing to compete with them to the second level why wouldn't I bid them right away, instead of allowing opps to negotiate their defense?

It's important for partner to know that 2♠ means precisely a reserve in length, not in HCP. My regular partners do.

I would bid the same way even at IMPs, but only NV.
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#18 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 18:34

North, for letting the opponents wriggle off the hook. I'd hit 2♥.

Suppose South makes a reasonable lead of the heart King. North-South should be able to pull most of the hearts, leaving E-W to claim the heart Ace, a ruff on each side, the spade Ace, and the diamond Ace, for -800. Something might be dropped along the way for only +500, and perhaps +200 if you really botch this thing. But, if you aren't going to bid the game, take the +200 or better, IMO.
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#19 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 19:54

Quote

North-South should be able to pull most of the hearts, leaving E-W to claim the heart Ace, a ruff on each side, the spade Ace, and the diamond Ace, for -800. Something might be dropped along the way for only +500,

No. There is no way to score +800 without declarer botching things. You can't prevent declarer from scoring a club trick. If you keep on leading trumps, South has to get in with the club K to play the third spade to kill West's last trump, North only has clubs left (maybe w/ diamond winners), and has to give E-W the last trick in clubs.

As it turned out, +500 would have gained you all of 0.5 matchpoints.

North really knows to hit 2♥ with Jxx trumps? How does he know South isn't going to bid game if he bids, neither of the first 2 passes limited South in principle?
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#20 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2009-May-09, 20:07

I play the xx as showing either 10+ no fit (so I'll double almost anything) or 13+ with fit. In this case partner shouldn't bid 2♠ or maybe we should invite with 3♠, but playing this partner's hand should be more clear.

View Postwyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the ♥3.


View Postrbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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