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2/1 2nd rebid

#1 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 05:21

Playing 2/1 GF, you hold:

Scoring: IMP


1 - 2 (easy so far!)
2 (catchall) - ?
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#2 User is offline   petergreat 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 05:24

2NT?

Seems best...3 isn't good because the s aren't good enough.
3NT is more of an overbid. This is 100% forcing anyway.
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#3 User is offline   andy_h 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 05:29

2NT, planning to rerebid 3S
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#4 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 07:04

Quote

  2NT, planning to rerebid 3S


Partner sabotages this plan by bidding 3NT. Is this the final contract?
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#5 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 07:05

3, lead inhibitor :) Planning to raise 3 to 4 and to pass pard's 3NT.

If you play 3 here as a 6-5 then I'd just try 3NT.
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#6 User is offline   miguelm 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 08:53

2NT.

The last thing I want to do is to bid 3H.... I want to leave room for him support my Diams. (if that isthe case) and my partner would also hate me if we miss a possible slam just because he quit trying for it after I bid a suit in which he might have a singleton/void.
It all makes perfect sense, expressed in dollars and cents.
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#7 User is offline   JLOL 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 09:03

2N, yes if partner bids 3N we are playing it there.
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#8 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 09:26

2N is clear... even tho I am big on postioning notrump contracts, 2N is the least distortion and if partner bids 3N, the odds are very good that the opps can take no more than 4 heart tricks, and may not have a natural heart lead anyway.

2N allows partner to complete the description of his hand and we will usually be able to find a 6-3 spade fit anyway (not always, of course... with 6223 partner will sometimes bid 3N.. but when he does, it rates to be ok).
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#9 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 10:52

What would 3NT be here in 2/1? (..sorry, don't know 2/1 very well).
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#10 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 11:00

kgr, on Apr 20 2009, 11:52 AM, said:

What would 3NT be here in 2/1? (..sorry, don't know 2/1 very well).

Wrong.

Just kidding. Actually, I think there is a lot of dispute and/or complete confusion as to what 3NT should show.

Whatever it shows, the reason why 2NT seems clear is that the hand has no great desire to play in 3NT. If Opener bids 3 over 2NT, 3NT may have no play but 6 or 6 might be nearly laydown.
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#11 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 14:45

2NT is pretty clear. Pass over 3NT, wtp.
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#12 User is offline   rbforster 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 15:39

kenrexford, on Apr 20 2009, 12:00 PM, said:

the reason why 2NT seems clear is that the hand has no great desire to play in 3NT.

Hmm.... so what you're saying is that maybe we should swap 2N and 3? That way opener plays 3N when he wants to (and we don't) and he still gets almost as much space to describe his hand.
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#13 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 17:29

Rob F, on Apr 20 2009, 04:39 PM, said:

kenrexford, on Apr 20 2009, 12:00 PM, said:

the reason why 2NT seems clear is that the hand has no great desire to play in 3NT.

Hmm.... so what you're saying is that maybe we should swap 2N and 3? That way opener plays 3N when he wants to (and we don't) and he still gets almost as much space to describe his hand.

Not really. What I'm saying is that you bid 2NT when you still have aspirations of playing slam, if 2NT describes your hand well.

Bidding notrump does not always mean that you want to play 3NT no matter what happens.
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#14 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2009-April-21, 00:34

Quote

2N is clear... even tho I am big on postioning notrump contracts, 2N is the least distortion and if partner bids 3N, the odds are very good that the opps can take no more than 4 heart tricks, and may not have a natural heart lead anyway.


No, maybe they have a natural lead. And when partner has no values there, 3NT sounds like a BAD idea...
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